for muslims who cherish Jesus (Issa)?

Question

This verse is from John 9. Why didn't Jesus rebuke the blind man?

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When Jesus heard that they had thrown him out, he found him and said, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?"
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He answered and said, "Who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?"
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Jesus said to him, "You have seen him and the one speaking with you is he."
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He said, "I do believe, Lord," and he worshiped him.
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8 Then Jesus said, "I came into this world for judgment, so that those who do not see might see, and those who do see might become blind."
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Some of the Pharisees who were with him heard this and said to him, "Surely we are not also blind, are we?"
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Jesus said to them, "If you were blind, you would have no sin; but now you are saying, 'We see,' so your sin remains.

Why doesn't he rebuke the blind man for worshipping him? (sorry should have made it clear).

I know you don't worship him, but that you respect him. Anyway, I think this verse is something to consider.

Not looking down, just want you to think about it.

Sorry, but Paul is only responsible for part of the New Testament. Other writers unclude Mathew, Mark, Luke, John, Peter, the mystery author of Hebrews.

Do you have any proof that Paul changed anything about the scripture?

Jesus said go forth and baptise in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit. He never says the name "Trinity", but doesn't that seem like a trinity to you? He at the very least is making himself equal with God and the Holy Spirit.

I always interpret Jesus' saying that as more I don't know the word, but a kind of joke. Because he knew who He was, but He didn't rebuke the blind man's actions. Also, He didn't rebuke Thomas when he worshipped Him.

Don H. , this is how I see it. At that time, people believed (not necessarily anything GOd said) that if you had some illness it was your fault. When Jesus rebuked the leaders, he was talking about their Spiritual blindness.

Jesus didn't always speak directly.

Answer 1

Amazing. They just can't see the discrepency. Jesus ACCEPTS WORSHIP. That should tell them something. Either Jesus is a very bad man, or He is indeed God incarnate. No good man would accept worship that belonged to God.

Mat 8:2 And, behold, there came a leper and worshiped him, saying, Lord, if thou wilt, thou canst make me clean.
Mat 8:3 And Jesus put forth his hand, and touched him, saying, I will; be thou clean. And immediately his leprosy was cleansed.

Answer 2

It sounds to me like Jesus was saying that the idea of sin is not a reality, but more a product of the judgment of the one who is seeing the action as sin-full.

Is this how you are seeing it?

I am interested in your interpretation. If you have time email and let me know.

It brings up some rather interesting possibilities if you see what I am saying.

Thanks for posting the question/statement.

Love and blessings Don

Answer 3

all Muslims must believe in Issa (p.b.u.h)...and all the other 124 000(approx.) prophets that came to pass the message of god.
We also must believe that GOD is without needs..ie:he needs not eat, die, feel pain, plan, breath etc.....if ALMIGHTY GOD, can be seen or touched or can die then it is not god....

Peace and my prayer be with u.
All Muslims must believe in the Old/New Testament, the Torah and the Quran, as Gods words, however everyone should know that the Quraan is the only book that has not been altered and will not be altered, it will be protected until the day of judgment, Gods promise. 1426 years to date and not a letter has been altered.....Read the Quraan and see the miracles in it...eg: 1426 years when it was revealed to the Prophet Mohammed P.B.U.H, he could not read or write...Quran tells u of the big Bang theory, about metal moving, flying and floating, Quran has solutions to all problems,Quran gives details of a birth of a child...where there scientist 1426 years ago...I doubt it...please discuss further....

Answer 4

Ok then, what is your question, why didnt Jesus rebuke the blind man? What did the blind man do that he should have been rebuked for?

Answer 5

"Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good–except God alone." ( Mark 10:18)"

John 12:44 Jesus cried and said, He that believeth on me, believeth not on me, but on him that SENT me.


John 17:3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast SENT.

John 14:28: "My Father is greater than I."

John 1:18. "Ye have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His shape."

JOHN 5:30 "I can of mine own self do NOTHING . . ."

MARK 1:13 "Where he (Jesus) stayed forty days, being tempted by Satan"

(Acts 2:22) "...Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through him in your midst..."

Jesus said; "Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit," (Matthew 28:19).

Perceived by the "man of extraordinary faith": This verse endorses the 'Doctrine of Trinity'.

Study No. 3
Peake's Commentary on the Bible, published in 1919, is regarded by many scholars to be the standard book of reference for the Bible study. Commenting on the above quoted verse, it records; "This mission is described in the language of the church and most commentators doubt that the trinitarian formula was original at this point in Mt.'s Gospel, since the NT elsewhere does not know of such a formula and describes baptism as being performed in the name of the Lord Jesus (e.g. Ac. 2:38, 8:16, etc.)."

Tom Harpur, author of several bestsellers and a former professor of New Testament, writes in his book 'For Christ's Sake'; "All but the most conservative of scholars agree that at least the latter part of this command was inserted later. The formula occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and we know from the only evidence available (the rest of the New Testament) that the earliest Church did not baptise people using these words - baptism was "into" or "in" the name of Jesus alone."

The quoted verse (irrespective of it being authentic or otherwise), does not indicate that the three names mentioned are "co-equal" in their status and were also "co-eternal" in the time frame. Unless these two important qualifications are acknowledged, the verse fails to endorse the fundamental belief and principle of the 'Doctrine of Trinity'.

Any one who joins Islam also recites two names ; "Allah" and "Muhammad", while admitting the ordained Islamic "Confession of Faith". But the later is regarded as the "servant" and "messenger" of Allah.

If the Father and His Son were both in "existence" from the Day One, and no one was, a micro second before or after, and, no one was "greater or lesser" in status, then why one is called the Father and the other His begotten Son?

Study Supportive Passage:
"And Peter said to them, 'Repent, and let each of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins;...'" (Acts 2:38).

It is most unlikely that apostle Peter could have disobeyed the specific command of his master for baptizing in the "three names" and instead baptized these people in "one" name.

Answer 6

Because the only way to the Father is through the Son.

Answer 7

Do you understand this? Jesus is rebuking the sin. He loves the sinners but hates the sin.

Answer 8

still...and again refreshing you up...we muslims does not worship any man..as man are equal in the eyes of God's..we Muslim only submit and worship God aka Allah swt..which christians call the Father..we only worship the Allah who created us the humans including Jesus (pbuh).

Answer 9

Leave it alone because God will punish you for looking down on others religions.

Answer 10

Amen sister!!