of England?
History shows that it was altered five times over a period of 150 years, with the current accepted version being the last one done in 1769. It was King James VI & I intent to create a less controversial Bible. than the Geneva Bible which he felt had offensive portions.
2006-12-06 18:44:55 · 6 answers · asked by The Papa B 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The answer to your question is no. If you study the greek you will find that is not the case, at least that is not the conclusion I come to after studying the facts. Some people delight in casting aspersion on things and people only in an attempt to discredit that which gets in their way . Since the KJV is respected and rightfully admired for its brilliance it has drawn the hateful speech of various enemies to it and sometimes religion in general who try to mask their hatred behind problems with translation. This is what I find .
2006-12-06 18:54:28 · answer #1 · answered by Socinian F 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Altered? When? We do know that the Puritans removed the Apochrypha. Other than that, We know that the KJV was ordered because James was not happy with the Geneva Bible.
I Cr 13;8a
12-6-6
Happy Hanukkah, Merry Christmas
2006-12-06 18:49:27 · answer #2 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Bible became into origonally prepare by using the Catholic church throughout councils interior the three thousands. So the Catholic Bible is the origional version of the bible. all of the different variations of the bible got here later and are incredibly distinctive, so why might anybody use them. that is not a sin to study something, its purely what's greater helpful or not
2016-10-17 22:35:07 · answer #3 · answered by woodworth 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.However, much of the KJV (a version based on king James' Catholicism) was based on the work and translations of John Tyndale, which drew on other sources. Interestingly, Old English versions of Geneses are very recognisable in the KJV. |However, the real surprise comes when the text is translated directly from Aramaic into English.
2006-12-06 18:52:18 · answer #4 · answered by darestobelieve 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If by church you mean the Catholic church, no. The Anglican church was set up before the KJV translation was done, and it is that church for which the work was intended. Nobody involved had any interest in what the Catholics might have thought about it.
2006-12-06 18:48:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
i think the ENTIRE bible was constructed on the beliefs of the church
2006-12-06 18:48:42 · answer #6 · answered by nick h h 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋