Before I answer your question (I actually just read a book on the Septuagint today, lol), I would like to know just how it's "inferior" and why you think so.
The methods scribes used in that time meant that there was NO room for inaccuracy. One test used was that the number of characters per page had to add up. Another was that the middle character had to be the same, in the same location, on both documents.
They were very strict about this.
So how would the documents have been "inferior"? I'd really like to know.
2006-12-06 13:39:23
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answer #1
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answered by The_Cricket: Thinking Pink! 7
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That is like asking Why do Jews and Christians use English, Spanish, French translations of the bible today? Because
Not many Jews and Christians today read Hebrew and Greek.
Even Greek speaking people today do not speak the same greek that the NT was written in, and use a modern Greek translation.
the Septuagint was used because more people, Jews and Gentiles spoke Greek, than Hebrew, at that time.
2006-12-07 16:23:01
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answer #2
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answered by TeeM 7
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The fact that the writers of the New Testament quote the LXX is validation that translation of Scripture from its original language into other languages is valid and accepted by God.
In at least the passages quoted in the N.T., God obviously did not feel that the LXX was an "inferior" translation.
2006-12-06 21:51:02
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answer #3
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answered by 5solas 3
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because they liked the septuagint's bad translation far better than they liked what the hebrew actually said.
2006-12-06 21:44:51
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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It's just another translation. Why do I read the Bible in english. Isn't this kind of a moot questions considering you are asking the question in english?
2006-12-06 21:39:10
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answer #5
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answered by sheepinarowboat 4
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Matthew was tired. Haven't you ever cribbed with "Cliff's Notes"?
2006-12-06 21:35:59
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answer #6
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answered by Black Parade Billie 5
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