Was he using non-canonical writings, too?
2006-12-06 12:54:26 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Matthew is referring to Isaiah 11:1. The name of the city Nazareth means "Branch". So when Matthew says that Jesus will be called a "Nazarene", he making a play on words. Isaiah 11:1 says that a "branch" will grow out of Jesse's root (which is the city of Bethlehem, the city of David). So by showing that Jesus had been born in Bethlehem and them moved to "Branch" (Nazareth), Jesus is called a "Nazarene" (or Branch). He is a Branch out of the root of Jesse. Remember that there are quotation marks in the Greek language in which Matthew was written. So the verse can be fairly read as ...
And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets he shall be called "a Nazarene". Only the words "a Nazarene" (a Branch) are the quote.
2006-12-06 13:06:34 · answer #1 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nazareth, an obscure city 70mi N of Jerusalem, replaced right into a place of lowly acceptance, and nowhere stated interior the OT. some have stated that "Nazarene" is a connection with the Hebrew word for branch in Isaiah 11:a million. Others factor out that Matthew's fact that "prophets" had made this prediction could be a connection with verbal prophecies nowhere recorded interior the OT. A nevertheless extra in all probability clarification is that Matthew is employing "Nazarene" as a synonym for somebody who's despised or detestable--for that replaced into how human beings from the region have been many times characterised (cf.John a million:40 six). if it is so, the prophecies Matthew has in techniques might contain playstation .22:6-8; Is. 40 9:7;fifty 3:3.
2016-10-14 04:26:19 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I love questions like this.
I had always assumed Jesus had been referred to in the Old Testament as a "Nazarene" or Matthew wouldn't have said what he did. But my commentary says Nazareth was never even mentioned in the Old Testament. That leaves two assumptions, at least to me it does. The term "Nazarene" was also used for a person who was despised during Matthews time OR Matthew may have meant "Branch" from the Hebrew word "neser", Isaiah 11:1.
I don't think Matthew would have quoted prophets whose writings hadn't been recorded though. To my knowledge, all of the references in the New Testament to Jesus being The Messiah are tied back to recorded prophecy.
Thanks for making me look.
2006-12-06 13:10:54 · answer #3 · answered by nancy jo 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Maybe you ought to open your eyes if you are going to read the Word of God. For Matthew is not quoting a non-existent prophesy. Matthew was quoting a prophesy which was used concerning several Old Testament men of God. It just so happened that Jesus also fell into this group which would be called Nazarenes. One of the prophets which spoke this prophesy concerning men who were to come, was the author of the Book of Judges. If you will read in Judges 13:5, you will find out that this same prophesy was spoken of the man who was known as Samson. And also, if you read on the life of Samuel, you will find that he also was to be a Nazarite, or a Nazarene. Matthew's writing was not speaking of a prophesy which applied only to Jesus, but to several others before Him also.
2006-12-06 13:20:17 · answer #4 · answered by Calvin S 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The quote is, "...so that what had been spoken through the prophets might be fulfilled, "He will be called a Nazorean."
The New Oxford Annotated Bible states the reference is to Isaiah 11:1 "A shoot shall come out from the stump of Jesse, and a branch shall grow out of his roots." The connection mentioned is "there is a similarity in sound and possibly in meaning between the Aramaic word for 'Nazareth' and the Hebrew word translated 'branch'." Being I don't speak either Aramaic or Hebrew, I cannot attest to that. The verse in Isaiah is discussing the messiah.
2006-12-06 13:04:53 · answer #5 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What are you talking about? Did you just assume he was speaking of a prophecy from the old testament?
Matt 2:23
23And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.
(KJV)
2006-12-06 12:58:51 · answer #6 · answered by Alicia S 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I quote:
"Then what had been spoken by the prophets was fulfilled, that Jesus would be called a Nazarene." (from the net bible translation)
Notes: The Greek could be indirect discourse (as in the text), or direct discourse (“he will be called a Nazarene”). Judging by the difficulty of finding OT quotations (as implied in the plural “prophets”) to match the wording here, it appears that the author was using a current expression of scorn that conceptually (but not verbally) found its roots in the OT.
god bless!!
2006-12-06 13:00:59 · answer #7 · answered by happy pilgrim 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The story of how Jesus got to Nazareth follows a now familiar pattern: the angel's appearance to Joseph in a dream, a command and the reason for it
(Ex 4:19) (Judges 13:5, 7), (Isa 11:1).
2006-12-06 12:59:00 · answer #8 · answered by Lives7 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It's funny you mention this particular one. My name is Matthew and my birthday is 2-23-83. Long ago I looked up Matthew 2:23 just for fun. Something along the lines of "he shall be called a Nazorean," right?
2006-12-06 12:57:55 · answer #9 · answered by thebrockmillionaire 3 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The Jews had other old testament books that were not included in today's Bible. One I can think of is the Book of Jasher.
2006-12-06 13:38:19 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋