2006-12-06 11:50:24 · 38 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Nobody is "capable". That's the whole message of the Gospel. All have sinned and come short of the glory of God" (Rom. 3:23)
All of us are saved by God alone...Grace through Faith (Eph. 2:8-9)
There is no "capable" to it.
2006-12-06 11:54:10 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋
You are assuming that they are in need of being saved. If you believe in the bible then you know that all sins are equal. Thinking an 'evil' thought is just as bad as committing an 'evil' deed. Considering the amount of impure or negative thoughts the average person has in a day, do you really believe that gays are less capable of being 'saved' than anyone else? Typical judgemental christian attitude. Don't forget to pull that plank out of your eye...
2006-12-06 12:00:07 · answer #2 · answered by Gabby 4 · 4⤊ 1⤋
There is no God to save them or anyone else.
But if you're wondering if there are Biblical passages which condemn homosexuals and homosexual acts, the answer is NO.
Most people, even priests and scholars, are unaware that the passages about homosexuality have been either misinterpreted or misunderstood.
The story of Sodom and Gomorrah? That's a warning against rape and inhospitality. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshipping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned.
Leviticus? Those passages were part of the Holiness Code which has been done away with and is no longer binding to modern-day Christians.
1 Corinthians? Mistranslation - the word malakee in this passage is used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.
1 Timothy? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.
Romans? In the passage the Greek words physin and paraphysin have been translated to mean natural and unnatural respectively. Contrary to popular belief, the word paraphysin does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that particular person. An example of the word paraphysin is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it seems to imply that it would be unnatural for a homosexual to live as a heterosexual and vice versa.
2006-12-06 11:52:01 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 4⤋
Why do you want to know? Are you gay? You must be gay and STILL in the closet to ask such a question. Straight people who are secure in their Sexuality would never ask such a question. A Gay person who is out would never ask such a question.This question you are asking reflects the way you look at life. I feel sorry for you, as you are missing so much. I will go to my gay church, and say a gay prayer for you,alongside my gay brothers and sisters.
Jesus would be shocked by this anti-gay attitude of some people. This is not the way he intended. You guys are completely missing the point. The worst ones amoung you are the Scripture Quoters....You people have more than one burnt out light bulb upstairs, if you know what i mean. Do the Scripture Quoters realize how many times the bible has been translated over the years, and how much the meanings of the favorite "passages of theirs" have been changed and manipulated? I think NOT!!! Otherwise they wouldn't be so willing to make themselves look as Stupid as they do....
2006-12-06 12:07:46 · answer #4 · answered by Steven Keith 3 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Neo???? Just wondering if you are asking this to insult or because of your chosen faith or your own prejudices or are you stereotyping?
My personal opinion is anyone can be saved if they ask for forgiveness of their sins and then try to do good to all mankind. I feel a personal sexual preference for any individual is not a sin, so YES Neo, Gays, Lesbians, Bisexuals, Heterosexuals can be saved if they have sinned and ask for forgiveness, will gain absolution.
I am praying for you to have an open mind Neo.
Bless you Neo.
2006-12-06 12:08:52 · answer #5 · answered by Mamma Mia 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
YES...side note is it me or are the christian people answering this curious person honestly to what they believe .. and the non Christians calling this Innocent and possibly gay inquisitor hateful with willful ignorance, arrogant, judgmental, and one gay christian calls the asker pitiful.. and condemns the rest of the Christians for saying a gay person has hope in gods eyes.
2006-12-06 12:21:08 · answer #6 · answered by . 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Nobody has the capability. Salvation is God's grace flowing towards those who have been cleansed by the blood of Jesus Christ and keep themselves unstained by the sins and corruptions of the world and of the flesh. Salvation is not denied to gays; but, they must seek from Christ their deliverance from the evil snare or disorder that the Evil one has inflicted upon them and they must strive not to fall in that stinking mire of the sin of homosexuality which God will punish with fire and brimstone (as what He did to Sodom and Gomorrha) even before He comes for the last time (Luke 17.29-30; Apoc 9.18).
2006-12-06 12:47:44 · answer #7 · answered by Marlowe 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Absolutely! Paul said "And such were some of you."
EDIT:
Wow zero cool! You know Everything about the Bible!
It's All a mistranslation or a misinterpretation!
In Romans 1, the word natural in the Greek, is "phusikos"- foo-see-kos...and it MEANS, physical, "instinctive- NATURAL"!
And all this time we just thought God meant what He said about preserving His Inspired Word, and all, but I guess you know best.... As far as the warning for sodom and gomorrah is concerned by YOUR definition, if you happen to own a dictionary, kindly look up the word SODOMY, or SODOMITE, and conclude by rereading the passage, that it was for the sin of sodomy that their city was destroyed, and Not for the sin of inhospitality!
In 1 Corinthians, the word used in the greek is "malakos"- mal-ak-os, and it means effeminate!
The cleanliness rituals in Leviticus may have been done away with, but God took the time to point out that He hasn't changed His mind on what He considers to be sin, or He wouldn't have reiterated the same message in the NT.
2006-12-06 11:53:03 · answer #8 · answered by lookn2cjc 6 · 4⤊ 3⤋
Yes
2006-12-06 12:02:42 · answer #9 · answered by Ludwig Wittgenstein 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yes, of course. EVERYONE is capable of being saved.
2006-12-06 11:58:08 · answer #10 · answered by Church Music Girl 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋