In tracing the origin of the Bible, one is led to the year 325, when Constantine the Great called the First Council of Nicaea, composed of 318 religious leaders. Three centuries after Jesus lived, this council was given the task of separating divinely inspired writings from those of questionable origin.
Were these 318 religious leaders divinely inspired?
I can't find anything about it in my Bible, and it seems kinda odd to think of the whole Bible as infallible if the people who selected the gospels weren't infallible.
Is there any proof in the Bible that says these 318 religious leaders where Divinely inspired? Or at least infallible?
2006-12-06 10:59:08 · 13 answers · asked by Thinx 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It appears to me that king constantine and the council of churches in 365 AD culled out many books,edited,altered,misquoted,and concealed much of Jesus's teaching and it also appears the catholic church concealed much of christianities roots in the vedas, siddha yoga,vedanta & hinduism. See stephen-knapp.com/articles_to_read I have studied some of siddha yoga & vedanta. Jesus taught the same as siddha & vedanta, for instance the guru diciple relationship (romans 8-29) Reincarnation ( Matt. 11-14/15, 17-10/13, 22-32)speaks of Isias reborn as john the baptist.
2006-12-06 11:23:28 · answer #1 · answered by Weldon 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Wow, another 'historically dysfunctional individual'-hummm? The books that are in the Bible were in use around 95 A.D. The elders and bishops who attended the council at Nicea did not write the Bible. What they did was to administer the test of canonicity. All books in question failed the test. The 66 books we use today were in use as soon as Revelation was complete. I believe that 5 books were in question for just a few years, but the questions were answered long before Nicea. The council at Nicea tested many writings and officially closed the canon without adding any books the the Bible.
2006-12-06 11:08:43 · answer #2 · answered by DATA DROID 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
All serious literary scholars know that the veracity or originality of a written work is judged based on how many original manuscript copies or partial copies exist. Of all books existing, the second greatest assurance of accuracy to the original is Homers "The Odyssey" because literary scholars have 43 original manuscript copies.
Number one in the list of assured original translations is the New testament of the Bible which has ... are you ready for this..over 40,000 original manuscript copies.
I repeat 40,000. The old testament is not as high but it is more than enough to establish validity among literary scholars.
This is why no serious literary scholar ever questions the accuracy of the writings of the Bible.
No one muzzles God when he is trying to make a point.
2006-12-06 11:30:43 · answer #3 · answered by davidvario 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Council of Nicaea did not fix the canon of the bible. The composition of the Bible was not one of the matters dealt with at this council.
No episcopal council dealt with the issue of which books should officially constitute the bible until the Council of Trent, more than a millennium later.
http://www.tertullian.org/rpearse/nicaea.html
Here is a history of the Bible and its canon:
http://www.columbia.edu/cu/augustine/a/canon.html
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biblical_canon
2006-12-06 11:17:08 · answer #4 · answered by evolver 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus Mary and Joseph!!!! Where on EARTH are you folks getting this idea that The First Council of Nicaea had ANYTHING to do with Scripture??????
The subject did not come up!!!
Mostly the debate was over the fate of Arianism. Period.
However - if we believe that the church is the Body of Christ - filled with the Holy Ghost on Pentecost in 33 A.D. - then the Church - in Council was certainly filled with the Holy Spirit.
As the very Creed from that council states...the Church is ONE, HOLY, CATHOLIC and APOSTOLIC...and when she met prior to the Great Schism of 1054....she was indeed, speaking with the mind of Christ.
2006-12-06 11:09:14 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Council of Nicaea was arrange to discuss the Divinity of Christ NOT THE BIBLE!
2006-12-06 11:03:28 · answer #6 · answered by Borinke 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
The books of the Bible were well recognized long before Constantine got his hands on it. That is not what makes it inspired.
2006-12-06 11:02:33 · answer #7 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
For catholics, the pope is "Christ's Vicar" his substitute Messiah if you will, when he speaks, "From the Chair of Peter" it is considered infallible as if Jesus himself had spoken. So If the Pope makes the claim that something is divinely inspired, then for Catholics it has to be gospel truth...
Personally I think they were smoking something..
2006-12-06 11:04:02 · answer #8 · answered by Socratic Pig 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, you don't have a lot of the 'facts.' If you are really interested. ...
WHAT REALLY HAPPENED AT NICEA?
http://www.equip.org/free/DN206.htm
If your questions comes from the Da Vinci Code or the Gnostic Gospels.
http://www.leestrobel.com/davinci.htm
http://www.comereason.org/cmp_rlgn/cmp005.asp
How Do I know the Bible is REALLY from God?
2006-12-06 11:14:54 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Start with Genesis 1 and keep reading until you get to the VERY end of Revelation 21- everything you read is what is true.
2006-12-06 11:01:29 · answer #10 · answered by Mandolyn Monkey Munch 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋