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Rape is a big crime that could actually take the woman's or the victim's life away. Let us examine how Christianity deals with the rapist: "If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:28)" Although this Verse from the Bible only talks about virgins, but its the only verse in the entire Bible that talks about raping single women. Not to be biased or anything, but the Bible seems to have quite weird things in it that are quite irrational and quite ridiculous. Deuteronomy 22:28 forces the raped woman to marry her rapist.


My question to the writers of the Bible is why in the world would any raped female victim want to be in the same town, not the same bedroom !! with her rapist?.

2006-12-06 10:37:02 · 7 answers · asked by truth 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

That verse was written 1500 years before Christianity was started so how can you say, "Lets examine how Christianity deals with the rapists?" I'm sure glad you are not my Bible teacher.

2006-12-06 10:48:13 · answer #1 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1 0

That's a great question. It probably has something to do with the fact that in biblical times, when two people had sex, they were married! There was no elaborate ceremony with a white dress and a big dinner with dancing. Doing the deed meant you were a couple for life. Therefore, the theory of pre-marital sex is totally flawed and made up by the church to control people.

So, if a woman was raped, she was essentially seen as ruined and could never be with another man. She had to marry the guy who raped her or she would be an outcast and a shame to her family. It wasn't her choice. It was society's choice and she just got to deal with it. Nice, eh? Sounds real compassionate.

2006-12-06 10:42:14 · answer #2 · answered by SweetestSarah 2 · 1 0

"If a man comes upon a maiden that is not betrothed, and takes her and has relations with her, and their deed is discovered," this is verse 28. Relations are not the same thing as rape. Verse 29, " the man who had relations with her shall pay the girl's father fifty silver shekels and take her as his wife becuase he has deflowered her. Moreover, he may not divorce her as long as he lives." He didn't rape her, he just had sex with her. He had to marry her and pay her father for the marriage, and for taking her virginity. This is only IF they are discovered. Reread the passage and come back to us.

2006-12-06 11:22:19 · answer #3 · answered by The Pope 5 · 0 0

its the rapist who is forced to marry the girl, not the other way around. if she doesn't want to marry him she doesn't have to, but the scriptures clearly assume she will want to. which means that probably in those times, girls who were raped probably preferred to marry their rapist than risk getting pregnant and having no father of the baby to support them. the scripture is meant to protect the raped girl by forcing the rapist to marry her thereby ensuring that she and her baby will have a roof over her head and a person who is obligated to provide her with food and clothing. it seems pretty weird in our times, but three thousand years ago life and priorities were much different.

2006-12-06 10:49:34 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The writers died like 2000 years ago. D:

I don't think they're going to answer.

2006-12-06 10:41:44 · answer #5 · answered by Gabi 2 · 0 0

YEAH READ IT AGAIN CAUSE YOU ARE SO WRONG!!

2006-12-06 10:42:00 · answer #6 · answered by liviaeve 2 · 0 0

READ IT AGAIN.
YOU ARE WRONG.

2006-12-06 10:39:25 · answer #7 · answered by cork 7 · 0 0

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