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please prove 2=1

2006-12-05 21:41:30 · 13 answers · asked by mr. x 5 in Entertainment & Music Jokes & Riddles

13 answers

let a+b+c=0
then 2a-a+2b-b+2c-c=0
transfer to the other side...
2a+2b+2c=a+b+c
cancel a+b+c

2=1

Tadaa!!!

2006-12-05 21:54:59 · answer #1 · answered by Zen Azura 2 · 1 0

Any one can try 2=1 with solved example of proving 3=2



This is a anomaly or whatever u call in mathematics.

Ramanujam found it but never disclosed it during his
life time.

It has been found from his dairy it seems.

See this illustration: for example say

-6 = -6

9-15 = 4-10

adding 25/4 to both sides:

9-15+25/4 = 4-10+25/4

Changing the order

9+25/4-15 = 4+25/4-10

(this is just like a square + b square - two a b = a-b
whole square.) Here a = 3,2 b=5/2 so it can be
expressed as follows

(3-5/2)(3-5/2) = (2-5/2)(2-5/2) taking positive square
root on both sides:

3 - 5/2 = 2 - 5/2

3 = 2

2006-12-05 23:52:53 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Zen Azura ir right But Also,

2=1 for very large values of 1

2006-12-05 22:05:28 · answer #3 · answered by just curious 4 · 0 0

enable a = b - Multiply the two sides by employing a a² = ab - upload (a² - 2ab) to the two sides a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab - factor the left, and convey mutually like words on the superb 2(a² - ab) = a² - ab - Divide the two sides by employing (a² - ab) 2 = a million of course, 2 would not actual equivalent a million, so there would desire to be some form of fallacy in the diagnosis. retaining in strategies a undeniable operation that's undefined, are you able to locate the subject? I won't supply it away here, yet once you're curious, be at liberty to e mail me for further information.

2016-10-14 03:16:47 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

I HAVE HEARD 2 + 2 = 5. FIRST YOU PROVE THIS THEN I WILL PROVE THAT TO YOU.

2006-12-06 01:09:56 · answer #5 · answered by ♪♥*B.B.K*♥♪ 7 · 0 0

theres nothing to prove in this becaus the statement is false.

2006-12-05 22:33:27 · answer #6 · answered by Heady 3 · 1 0

a=b
a^2=ab multiply by a
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 subtract b^2
(a-b) (a+b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
a+a=a (a=b)
2a=a
2=1

hence proved.

2006-12-06 15:16:23 · answer #7 · answered by arpita 5 · 2 0

of course.

if we think that 2 is x, and 1 is y,
then it will be x=y
then if we set the x mean and y meaning, then

2=1(proved)

EURACHA( i think)

2006-12-05 22:29:35 · answer #8 · answered by Annoymous 3 · 0 2

Interesting question!

2016-08-14 06:56:57 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

well change both the numbers to either side they give the same.

HENCE PROVED...........

2006-12-06 06:57:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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