let a+b+c=0
then 2a-a+2b-b+2c-c=0
transfer to the other side...
2a+2b+2c=a+b+c
cancel a+b+c
2=1
Tadaa!!!
2006-12-05 21:54:59
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answer #1
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answered by Zen Azura 2
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Any one can try 2=1 with solved example of proving 3=2
This is a anomaly or whatever u call in mathematics.
Ramanujam found it but never disclosed it during his
life time.
It has been found from his dairy it seems.
See this illustration: for example say
-6 = -6
9-15 = 4-10
adding 25/4 to both sides:
9-15+25/4 = 4-10+25/4
Changing the order
9+25/4-15 = 4+25/4-10
(this is just like a square + b square - two a b = a-b
whole square.) Here a = 3,2 b=5/2 so it can be
expressed as follows
(3-5/2)(3-5/2) = (2-5/2)(2-5/2) taking positive square
root on both sides:
3 - 5/2 = 2 - 5/2
3 = 2
2006-12-05 23:52:53
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Zen Azura ir right But Also,
2=1 for very large values of 1
2006-12-05 22:05:28
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answer #3
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answered by just curious 4
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enable a = b - Multiply the two sides by employing a a² = ab - upload (a² - 2ab) to the two sides a² + a² - 2ab = ab + a² - 2ab - factor the left, and convey mutually like words on the superb 2(a² - ab) = a² - ab - Divide the two sides by employing (a² - ab) 2 = a million of course, 2 would not actual equivalent a million, so there would desire to be some form of fallacy in the diagnosis. retaining in strategies a undeniable operation that's undefined, are you able to locate the subject? I won't supply it away here, yet once you're curious, be at liberty to e mail me for further information.
2016-10-14 03:16:47
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answer #4
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answered by ? 4
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I HAVE HEARD 2 + 2 = 5. FIRST YOU PROVE THIS THEN I WILL PROVE THAT TO YOU.
2006-12-06 01:09:56
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answer #5
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answered by ♪♥*B.B.K*♥♪ 7
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theres nothing to prove in this becaus the statement is false.
2006-12-05 22:33:27
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answer #6
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answered by Heady 3
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a=b
a^2=ab multiply by a
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 subtract b^2
(a-b) (a+b)=b(a-b)
a+b=b
a+a=a (a=b)
2a=a
2=1
hence proved.
2006-12-06 15:16:23
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answer #7
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answered by arpita 5
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of course.
if we think that 2 is x, and 1 is y,
then it will be x=y
then if we set the x mean and y meaning, then
2=1(proved)
EURACHA( i think)
2006-12-05 22:29:35
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answer #8
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answered by Annoymous 3
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Interesting question!
2016-08-14 06:56:57
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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well change both the numbers to either side they give the same.
HENCE PROVED...........
2006-12-06 06:57:03
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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