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2006-12-05 08:50:38 · 11 answers · asked by twe 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

If you don't believe she was sinless, please don't answer. I'm asking why you believe she WAS sinless. Not why you think she wasn't.

2006-12-05 13:41:13 · update #1

11 answers

A woman begetting God surely makes far more sense if the woman is impeccable.

2006-12-05 08:57:12 · answer #1 · answered by BigPappa 5 · 1 2

Buy the Gospel Truth about Mary on catholic answers. http://shop.catholic.com/catholic-digital-media/audio-1/mp3-the-gospel-truth-about-mary-volume-1.html

Its is the best defense of her sinlessness.
She was in fact fact sinless. Just to give you just a bit. Read Revelation 12. People say this represents israel. I would say only the twelve stars do but not the woman. At then end it says that the dragon called satan hated the woman and went to make war with her children who followed the commandments of Jesus. In the Gospel of John when jesus says to John Behold your mother. This was not written there because John had to fill up space. All this is for us to hear. Also remember revelation was written by John as well. Seriously buy the Gospel Truth about Mary and if you're looking into the Roman Catholic Church I wish you luck. I love the one faith which can be traced back to the apostles. Also you have to acknowledge that if protestants are right then the first 1500 years of the church was full of of idolators since the believed in the Eucharist. Hell even Luther believed in it. The belief that the eucharist was only a symbol came from the anabaptists headed by Zwingli. They did not believe in the trinity. Neither did they believe in the two natures of Christ. From these people we get the honestly heretical opinion that the eucharist is not the body and blood of christ.

2014-03-24 05:21:07 · answer #2 · answered by ? 1 · 0 0

Other than being the Sacred Vessel that carried the arrival of Yeshua Messiah/ Jesus the Christ [PBUH], the adulation and adoration of Mary has become the central core of the Marian FAITH by the RCC, which gained strength around the 11th-12th century when the Marian Rosary was invented by a monk.

Mary has become SO DEIFIED and given far too many virtues by the Church, including "perpetual virginity", even to be given such an outlandish accolade as being called the "Mother of God". That is blasphemy!

I doubt very much if the claim that Mary was sinless can be Biblically supported at all.

[NOTA BENE: Once again, my stand is AGAINST the teachings and doctrines of the Roman Catholic Church ALONE, and NOT to be construed as a personal affront TO ANYONE of Her Faithful AT ALL.]

"Seek and you shall find. Listen and you shall hear. Open your eyes and you shall see. Knock and the door shall be opened for you..."

Heed these words of Wisdom from our Greatest Teacher of all, Yeshua Messiah. Praise be upon Him!

Peace be with you.

2006-12-05 17:13:30 · answer #3 · answered by Arf Bee 6 · 0 0

Mary wasn't sinless. She was chosen by God for several reasons - she was a Jew from the line of David (as was Joseph) which would make Jesus' pedigree so to speak in line with God's prophecy about him; she was also highly favored by God according to the account in Luke 1. She was modest, humble and had strong faith. She was able to produce a perfect son because God enabled her to do so. Afterward she had children with Joseph, so the idea that she remained a virgin is incorrect.

2006-12-05 16:59:30 · answer #4 · answered by Kelly L 3 · 2 0

Mary was not sinless- this is false doctrine- this is why there are so many errors in Catholocism...people comparing Mary to God when she is not God! She bore Jesus yes- but she was not sinless only HE was...

Hebrews 4:15
For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been tempted in every way, just as we are—yet was without sin.

1 John 1:8
If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us.

2006-12-05 17:03:32 · answer #5 · answered by Mandolyn Monkey Munch 6 · 0 0

There really is no scripture to back this up....and it is one of the places (The Immaculate Conception - not made dogma until 1854) where I differ with my Roman Catholic brothers and sisters.

The RCC would say something similar, at least about the Scripture part:

Genesis 3:15
No direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture. But the first scriptural passage which contains the promise of the redemption, mentions also the Mother of the Redeemer. The sentence against the first parents was accompanied by the Earliest Gospel (Proto-evangelium), which put enmity between the serpent and the woman: "and I will put enmity between thee and the woman and her seed; she (he) shall crush thy head and thou shalt lie in wait for her (his) heel" (Genesis 3:15). The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically. The conqueror from the seed of the woman, who should crush the serpent's head, is Christ; the woman at enmity with the serpent is Mary. God puts enmity between her and Satan in the same manner and measure, as there is enmity between Christ and the seed of the serpent. Mary was ever to be in that exalted state of soul which the serpent had destroyed in man, i.e. in sanctifying grace. Only the continual union of Mary with grace explains sufficiently the enmity between her and Satan. The Proto-evangelium, therefore, in the original text contains a direct promise of the Redeemer, and in conjunction therewith the manifestation of the masterpiece of His Redemption, the perfect preservation of His virginal Mother from original sin.

Luke 1:28
The salutation of the angel Gabriel -- chaire kecharitomene, Hail, full of grace (Luke 1:28) indicates a unique abundance of grace, a supernatural, godlike state of soul, which finds its explanation only in the Immaculate Conception of Mary. But the term kecharitomene (full of grace) serves only as an illustration, not as a proof of the dogma.

Other texts
From the texts Proverbs 8 and Ecclesiasticus 24 (which exalt the Wisdom of God and which in the liturgy are applied to Mary, the most beautiful work of God's Wisdom), or from the Canticle of Canticles (4:7, "Thou art all fair, O my love, and there is not a spot in thee"), no theological conclusion can be drawn. These passages, applied to the Mother of God, may be readily understood by those who know the privilege of Mary, but do not avail to prove the doctrine dogmatically, and are therefore omitted from the Constitution "Ineffabilis Deus". For the theologian it is a matter of conscience not to take an extreme position by applying to a creature texts which might imply the prerogatives of God.

2006-12-05 16:56:25 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Mary the mother of Jesus was a woman who was described by God as “highly favored” (Luke 1:28). The phrase “highly favored” comes from a single Greek word, which essentially means “much grace.” Mary received God’s grace. Grace is “unmerited favor,” meaning that it something we receive despite the fact that we do not deserve it. Mary needed grace from God, just as the rest of us do. The Bible never says that Mary was anyone but an ordinary human female whom God chose to use in a extraordinary way. Yes, Mary was a righteous woman and favored (graced) by God (Luke 1:27-28). At the same time, Mary was also a sinful human being just like everyone else – who needed Jesus Christ as her Savior, just like everyone else (Ecclesiastes 7:20; Romans 3:23; 6:23 1 John 1:8).



Mary did not have an “immaculate conception” – there is no Biblical reason to believe Mary’s birth was anything but a normal human birth. Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus (Luke 1:34-38), but the idea of the perpetual virginity of Mary is unbiblical. Matthew 1:25, speaking of Joseph, declares, “But he had no union with her UNTIL she gave birth to a son. And he gave Him the name Jesus.” The word “until” clearly indicates that Joseph and Mary did have sexual union after Jesus was born. Joseph and Mary had several children together after Jesus was born. Jesus had four half-brothers: James, Joseph, Simon, and Judas (Matthew 13:55). Jesus also had half-sisters but they are not named or numbered (Matthew 13:55-56). What better way for God to bless and grace Mary than to give her several children.



Mary was there at the cross when Jesus died (John 19:25). Mary was with the apostles on the day of Pentecost (Acts 1:14). However, Mary is never mentioned again after Acts chapter 1. The Apostles nowhere give Mary a prominent role. Mary’s death is not recorded in the Bible. Nothing is said about Mary ascending to Heaven, or having any form of exalted role in Heaven. Mary is to be respected as the earthly mother of Jesus, but she is not worthy of our worship or adoration. The Bible nowhere indicates that Mary can hear our prayers, or that she can mediate for us with God. Jesus is our only advocate and mediator in Heaven (1 Timothy 2:5). If offered worship, adoration, or prayers, Mary would say the same as the angels: “Worship God!” (Revelation 19:10; 22:9).

2006-12-05 16:54:00 · answer #7 · answered by Yeshua 2 · 4 1

Mary was not sinless. All people have sinned , it's out nature.

2006-12-05 16:56:50 · answer #8 · answered by Michael 2 · 2 1

Mary was not sinless. www.equip.org

2006-12-05 16:53:56 · answer #9 · answered by jamesdkral 3 · 2 0

I follow a set religion, but sometimes I do wonder about that. Since science has proven that just a drop put on the outside of the vagina can cause pregnancy due to the little swimmers ability to swim up inside of their, how do we know she wasn't fooling around on the side and used this pregnancy to gain a lot of fame and fortune? Sperm can get inside even if she's a virgin because the hymen isn't completely sealed. And we all know that there are plenty of pedophiles out there. Just look at the 5 year old from South America. It's something to think about.

2006-12-05 16:58:48 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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