Our car was totaled in an accident by a careless driver (his fault, he got ticketed). Are we entitled to a rental car thru his ins? although we said we didn't need one @ the accident. Shouldn't we still get the money that would have been used for 1?
2006-12-04 04:16:06 · 5 answers · asked by star83_4mc 3 in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
Well, think of it like this. If you had been injured and had to have had medical treatment, the insurance would have paid for that too. But does that mean you are entitled to the money they would have paid if you aren't injured? Isn't the rental car the same? If you really need one, they would get you one (probably) but since you don't...
If the other person is found to be at fault, you are entitled to have your damaged property fixed, or if it isn't fixable, the worth of the property at the time of loss adjusted by condition.
2006-12-04 04:56:37 · answer #1 · answered by oklatom 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The money paid out in an accident is to put you back in the same position that you were before the accident. They will not pay for a rental car unless you actually rent and will almost always pay the rental car company directly.
2006-12-04 12:58:06 · answer #2 · answered by blb 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are entitled to a rental car, but you are not entitled to any money for one. The insurance company would pay the rental car co. directly.
2006-12-04 12:19:58 · answer #3 · answered by rex_rrracefab 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Normally you actually have to incur the expense for the rental car in order to get paid. They should pay for you to get one while your car is in the shop. But it will only be for the downtime they approve and for a reasonable fee, not some big luxurious car.
2006-12-04 18:21:41 · answer #4 · answered by Chris 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No...it is called "rental reimbursement" for a reason. Sorry.
2006-12-04 14:47:49 · answer #5 · answered by jmrob29 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋