round two can someone answer this question on Issiah 53:10?

Question

Issiah 53:10
Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand


53:10 "He shall see his seed." The Hebrew word for "seed", used in this verse, always refers to physical descendants in Scriptures e.g., Gen. 12:7; Gen. 15:13; Gen. 46:6; Ex. 28:43. A different word, generally translated as "sons", is used to refer to spiritual descendants (see Deut. 14:1, e.g.).

so how could this verse be talking about Jesus?

if it is refering to spritual seed please give me one verse where the word Zerah is used to mean spritual decendants

Answer 1

It is my opinion, that the bible has many depths to it... there are literal answers, but also figurative ones. The word 'seed' that you mention appears many times, like you said, but I would argue that it does not always refer only to physical descendants (see Gen 3:15, Gen 13:16...). You can read these verses and stop at the physical seed level... but as you study those verses, you can take a figurative/spiritual look at what is said. Specifically, look at the promises God makes to Abraham... those are applicable to Christians today (Gal 3:17, Rom 4:16)... "Therefore know that those of faith, these are the sons of Abraham." It is clear that the 'seed' you speak of allows the context to be transferred to a meaning beyond merely physical.

Also, look at Gen 22:18 'And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because, thou hast obeyed my voice.' What do you think the 'seed' refers to here? It is the same 'seed' you mention above... and again, consider it refering to the Jewish nation, but also consider it refers to Christ... he is known as the seed of Eve (Gen 3:15) and of Abraham...

Finally, If you read Isiah 53:1-10, it is clear that the 'HE' is refering to Jesus Christ (or the Son of God) the entire way through. It never says 'Jesus Christ' but it says: HE is despised and rejected of men, a man of sorrrows, borne our griefs, carried our sorrows, HE was wounded for our transgressions, bruised for our iniquities... might I point out that this was written before Christ's birth?

Also, It is grammatically consistent to understand Jesus is the subject of verse 10 since he is the subject in verses 1-9 and verses 11-13.

Anyway, that's my story and I'm sticking to it.

Thanks for the great question! I enjoyed researching this one.

Answer 2

"He will be in high station and will certainly be elevated and exalted very much.” (Isaiah 52:13.) Just who is this “servant”? Over the centuries, Jewish scholars offered various opinions. Some claimed that he represented the whole nation of Israel during its Babylonian exile. But such an explanation does not match the prophecy. God’s Servant suffers voluntarily. Although innocent, he suffers for the sins of others. This hardly describes the Jewish nation, which went into exile because of its sinful ways. (2 Kings 21:11-15; Jeremiah 25:8-11) Others claimed that the Servant represented the pious elite in Israel and that these suffered in behalf of sinful Israelites. However, during times of affliction in Israel, no one specific group suffered for another.

Some, therefore, argue that the Servant represents a ‘righteous elite’ in Israel that suffered on behalf of the sinful Jews. 5 But Isaiah never spoke of any such elite. On the contrary, he prophesied that the whole nation would be sinful!

Before the advent of Christianity and to some extent during the early centuries of the Common Era, a few Jewish scholars did apply this prophecy to the Messiah. That this is the correct application is seen in the Christian Greek Scriptures. The book of Acts reports that when the Ethiopian eunuch said that he did not know the identity of the Servant of Isaiah’s prophecy, Philip “declared to him the good news about Jesus.” (Acts 8:26-40; Isaiah 53:7, 8.) Other Bible books likewise identify Jesus Christ as the Messianic Servant of Isaiah’s prophecy. As we discuss this prophecy, we will see the undeniable parallels between the one whom Jehovah calls “my servant” and Jesus of Nazareth.

6 The prophecy begins by describing the ultimate success of the Messiah in carrying out the divine will. The word “servant” indicates that he will submit to God’s will, as a servant does to that of his master. In so doing, he “will act with insight.” Insight is the ability to see into a situation. Regarding the Hebrew verb here used, one reference work says: “At its heart is the thought of prudent and wise dealing. He who deals wisely will obtain success.” That the Messiah will indeed be successful is seen in that the prophecy says he will “be elevated and exalted very much.”

Jesus did “act with insight,” showing understanding of the Bible prophecies that applied to him and being guided by them to do the will of his Father. (John 17:4; 19:30.) With what result? Following Jesus’ resurrection and ascension to heaven, “God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name.” (Philippians 2:9; Acts 2:34-36.) Then, in 1914 the glorified Jesus was elevated even further. Jehovah exalted him to the throne of the Messianic Kingdom. (Revelation 12:1-5 - Yes, he was “elevated and exalted very much.”

Answer 3

Its not, Issiah is in the Old Testament,,,, if any thing it he is the seed of David, and David the seed of Jesse etc........
You have to remember that the Bible as a whole is not about Jesus. Only the New Testament is.The Old Testament are the moral stories of the Hebrew people that Christianity built on.
This is a passage that is saying give yourself to god and he will smile upon you.

Answer 4

God is talking about when Jesus came to pass, those who saw Him could not bare to look Him in the eye.
I think you are misinterpreting the Pleased to bruise Him, thinking that the Lord took great pleasure in this.
However, How I interpret is that the Lord offered His son as a sacrifice for our sins...those who are rich, those who are poor, and those who are wicked have a chance if they choose to change and follow the right path unto Him.

With Jesus dying for our sins, it has opened the door for us all(Not just Jews) to have a chance at salvation

Answer 5

If you follow your reasoning to its logical conclusion you will find it absurd and this verse will be rendered meaningless in the context that it is being used. You then have the burden of showing to what it can be attributed to if not to Christ.
I don't understand your motives here. Are you out to affront Christianity or is this an genuine question? If you are not being honest with what you are really asking here then all answers are meaningless to you unless we all allow that you have pointed out the senselessness of the word of God and become the true heathen beings that we were meant to be. If you cannot see the reference to Christ here it is not the fault of the word of God but a fault of your own for the lack of spiritual discernment.

Answer 6

God is speaking about offering his Son Jesus Christ as the ransom sacrifice to redeem fallen mankind, that through Jesus' sacrifice many will be saved and brought into a good standing with God to have eternal blessings and Jesus would be exalted to be King over the earth, the sons of men whom he has a special fondness for. Jesus, for his role in redeeming mankind and doing his Father's will, was to receive immortality at his Father's right hand side. Jehovah took delight in that his only begotten Son in heaven would lower himself to the position of a human to vindicate Jehovah's sovereignty and fullfil his will in his purposes for mankind.

Answer 7

Isaiah 53:10


Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.

Transition from His humiliation to His exaltation.

Yet it pleased the Lord - the secret of His sufferings. They were voluntarily borne by Messiah, in order that thereby He might 'do Yahweh's will' (John 6:38; Heb 10:7,9), as to man's redemption; so at the end of the verse, "the pleasure of the Lord shah prosper in His hand."

Bruise - Hebrew, dak'ow (OT:1792) (see Isa 53:5, the same Hebrew, "He was bruised for our iniquities"); Gen 3:15, was hereby fulfilled though the Hebrew word yªshuwpkaa (OT:7779) for "bruise," there, is not the one used here. The Hebrew there may mean to overwhelm with darkness. Messiah's time of darkness was temporary (Matt 27:45), answering to the bruising of His heel. Satan's is to be eternal, answering to the bruising of his head (Isa 50:10).

He hath put him to grief - recapitulating Isa 53:4, "He hath borne our griefs" (the same Hebrew as here, hechªliy (OT:2470)).

When thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin (taasiym (OT:7760), second person singular masculine) - rather, as mary. (Hebrew, third person feminine), 'when His soul (i.e., He) shall have made an offering for sin.' In the English version the change of person is harsh: from Yahweh, addressed in the second person (Isa 53:10), to Yahweh speaking in the first person in Isa 53:11. The margin rightly makes the prophet, in the name of Yahweh Himself to speak in this verse. Thus translated, the clause indicates the Saviour's voluntary laying down of His life (John 10:17-18; Eph 5:2; Heb 9:14). So the Vulgate.

Offering for sin - (Rom 3:25; 1 John 2:2; 4:10); asham, sin, with reference to its guilt and penalty. So a sin offering 2 Cor 5:21 accords with the English version, "He (the Father) hath made Him (the Son) to be sin for us, who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him."

He shall see his seed - really His seed, not in mere figure, because they derive all their life from Him (1 Peter 1:3). His spiritual posterity shall be numerous (Ps 22:30); nay, more, though He must die He shall see them. A numerous posterity was accounted a high blessing among the Hebrews; still more so for one to live to see them (Gen 48:11; Ps 128:6).

He shall prolong his days - also esteemed a special blessing among the Jews (Ps 91:16), in contrast to His past shortening of life as one "cut off out of the land of the living." Messiah shall, after death, rise again to an endless life (Ps 21:4; Hos 6:2; Rom 6:9)


Hope that helps put it in context a little.

Answer 8

Spiritual children from spiritual seed.

1JN 3:7 Dear children, do not let anyone lead you astray. He who does what is right is righteous, just as he is righteous. 8 He who does what is sinful is of the devil, because the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work. 9 No one who is born of God will continue to sin, because God's {seed} remains in him; he cannot go on sinning, because he has been born of God. 10 This is how we know who the children of God are and who the children of the devil are: Anyone who does not do what is right is not a child of God; nor is anyone who does not love his brother.

Answer 9

All I can say is that I have learned in my Biblical classes, and through many books on the subject, that Biblical scholars - including Christians - agree that this chapter is NOT speaking about Jesus.

Answer 10

I see two possibilities: First, maybe Mary Magdelene really was His wife, and he DID have a daughter...
Second, and more likely, since Jesus is fully God AND fully man, it is speaking of His Spiritual Seed, since God's nature is not and cannot be physical outside of Christ Himself.