my daughter is supposed to take 1 mg of Risperdall. 1/2 am and 1/2 pm. Now I have .5 mgs. If I give her 2 of them is that the same as a 1 mg? I am getting so confused.
2006-12-02 22:56:30 · 6 answers · asked by Mrs J 6 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Medicine
well , yes , two .5 mgis the same as 1 mg..... but if she is suppose to take 1mg,,,, half of it at am and half at pm,,,, wouldnt you just give her the .5 at each time???
2006-12-02 23:01:15 · answer #1 · answered by dlin333 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.5=1/2
if she's taking 1/2 mg in the morning and 1/2 mg in the evening, she gets one .5 pill at a time.
2006-12-03 07:00:33 · answer #2 · answered by mreheather6 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Two .5 mg pills will equal 1 mg. You are absolutly correct. Not a very pleasant medication to have to give your daughter.... Best of luck to you.
2006-12-03 07:02:36 · answer #3 · answered by brooks b 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are giving her two 0.5mg(1/2) pills then it would be 1 mg. If you are giving her 2 whole tabs then it is 2 mg.
2006-12-03 17:49:37 · answer #4 · answered by Igottheanswers 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
.5mg =1/2mg for am
.5mg = 1/2mg for pm
therefore, she gets a total of 1mg in a day. (2pills)
2006-12-03 07:04:20 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
give one .5mg in morning & another .5mg in afternoon.....
2006-12-03 07:19:47 · answer #6 · answered by pamoda k 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋