She was married to another man but has God's child. Essencially this means Jesus was born into sin. Why didn't God make her pregnant before she got married? Then everything could have been legitimate.
2006-12-02 22:03:56 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
A child resulted. God's act of making Mary pregnant was sexual, even if it was done by miracle instead of a physical phallus.
2006-12-02 22:10:01 · update #1
she did get pregnant before she got married! Have you not read the bible, or are you taking some idiot muslim cleric's word for how things were? She was only betrothed to Joseph when she became pregnant, not married.
2006-12-02 22:12:47 · answer #1 · answered by judy_r8 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you read the Bible, you will see that Mary was not guilty of adultry. Joseph, her fiance was worried about the same thing when he learned she was with child. He was assured by the Lord that she wasn't guilty and he should go on and marry her.
Mary was born without sin so that she could become the earthly mother of Jesus. She gave her consent when told by the Angel of the Lord that she would conceive a child and his name would be Jesus.
2006-12-02 22:14:23 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You don't get it.
God is involved in every pregnancy.
In this particular instance, he simply conceived himself in Mary's womb, with her permission, in a totally non-sexual manner.
No one knows exactly how it was accomplished, so no one is in a position to make a judgment on it ... except God.
Two thing are certain .... there was no sin involved, because if that had been the case, Jesus' mission would have been over even before it started ... and beside that, God is patently incapable of committing a sin ... or causing anyone else to do so.
2006-12-02 23:19:55 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
As I recall, I think that she wasn't fully married to anyone when she was pregnant with Jesus or before it.
She on the other hand can still get in trouble since she was in the care of Zachary, and the father wasn't known. Zachary himself probably would understand since his wife share the same fate, but some people of the society probably wouldn't understand.
I guess that the one who could spring her out of trouble would be God and Jesus.
2006-12-03 06:18:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was not guilty of adultry and she was pregnant before she got married. Mary was still a virgin when she became pregnant.
2006-12-02 22:12:37 · answer #5 · answered by tracy211968 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you knew anything Mary was pregnant before she was married, thats way she had to get married because she was now pregnant.
2006-12-02 22:08:09 · answer #6 · answered by calieyecandy 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The scripture says (Luke 1: 27 "To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph ...)" meaning to say, She was (engaged to be maried) or about to be married to a man called Joseph.
Engagement in the olden times is publicly announce and already considered the woman as his wife, since the rituals for marriage is not yet perform, consumation of their married life is not allowed till the rituals is over.This what the scripture is trying to convey. Mary was already a wife to Joseph through engagement and not through the rituals of marriage, if their marriage was already consumated, she cannot be called a virgin! Right! Here some verses for you to ponder with.
Matthew 1:18-25
18 Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.
24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.
Adultery nor fornication is ruled out in this situation. Mary was chosen by God to be the mother of Jesus, for she was the only pure Adamite stock that fulfill the prophecy in Genesis 3:15 "And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel."
Therefore Jesus must come through the seed of a woman, not man.
2006-12-02 23:09:20 · answer #7 · answered by NIGHT_WATCH 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Joseph and Mary were essentially engaged - not married - when Jesus was conceived.
A simple bible study could confirm that for you....
God bless!
2006-12-02 22:16:13 · answer #8 · answered by happy pilgrim 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Actually she wasn't technically married to Joseph, but betrothed in mythology.
2006-12-02 22:30:00 · answer #9 · answered by reagan_prrs 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary DID NOT commit adultry. She is the immaculate conception
and she did not have sex with God.
2006-12-02 22:13:09 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋