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Why women in church don't use the veil mentioned by Paul in Corinthians??? I know why people do it, but I want to know why people don't do it?

I'm non-denominational... I'm asking to learn...

2006-12-02 05:35:15 · 5 answers · asked by bless 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

5 answers

A woman is to be covered with the veil in the end-times. That veil is Christ. ‘Hair' is used symbolically for the covering of the head, for the veil (see below Scripture). The reason that she should be covered with Christ (by Christ Jesus) is because the fallen angels are coming back. Jesus Himself warned as much:

Luke 17:26-30
26 And as it was in the days of Noe [Noah in the Greek], so shall it be also in the days of the Son of man.
27 They did eat, they drank, they married wives, they were given in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, and the flood came, and destroyed them all.
28 Likewise also as it was in the days of Lot; they did eat, they drank, they bought, they sold, they planted, they builded;
29 But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all.
30 Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed [at the Second Advent]. (KJV)

Who was given in marriage and to whom were they given? Flesh women were seduced by the fallen angels and the fruit of that union was the Giants, which Noah's Flood was sent to destroy. Below is the incident that Christ was referring to, and which shall again transpire in the end times (the Tribulation):

Gen 6:2-8
2 That the sons of God [the fallen angels] saw the daughters of men [flesh women] that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.
7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.
8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD. (KJV)

Below we shall examine the Scripture in question, observe that the "hair," in a spiritual sense, is the covering, the veil. A woman is to have that covering in the end times to protect her from the ‘advances' (sexual) of the fallen angels who come back here with satan (antichrist) in the end-time (Rev 12:9). And what it means where it says that it is a shame if the man has to have the ‘hair' (covering) to protect him from the fallen angels, is that if he needs this it is something perverted going on (homosexual), because the fallen angels are male (there is no female form in spiritual bodies [which incidentally, is further witness to the fact that the so-called Marian sightings (Fatima etc.) are in reality, demonic apparitions (2nd Cor 11:14-15)]).

Also, in the above Scripture (the first one) in Luke 17:28-29, you notice that Sodom was mentioned in context with the fallen angels of Gen chapter six. It is my belief that there was another irruption of the fallen angels in Sodom, though I be hard pressed to fully document it. We know that there was another irruption of the fallen angels in David's time, for the Goliath was a giant (the offspring of a union between angelic beings and human women). There are others mentioned in other places in the old Testament as well. "There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown. (Gen 6:4)

But anyway, below is our Scripture in question. I have supplied certain definitions from key words in the Scripture. These definitions are from the time trusted Strong's Exhaustive Concordance, a necessary tool for the English-only (non-Greek or Hebrew) language speaking Bible student. But be careful with free Internet versions of the Strong's, there are many spurious versions out there that are not real Strong's Concordances:

1 Cor 11:10-15
10 For this cause ought the woman to have power on her head because of the angels.
11 Nevertheless neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord.
12 For as the woman is of the man, even so is the man also by the woman; but all things of God.
13 Judge in yourselves: is it comely that a woman pray unto God uncovered?
14 Doth not even nature itself teach you, that, if a man have long hair, it is a shame unto him?
15 But if a woman have long hair, it is a glory to her: for her hair is given her for a covering. (KJV)

Strong's definitions from above:

power: Greek word # 1849 exousia (ex-oo-see'-ah); from 1832 (in the sense of ability); privilege, i.e. (subjectively) force, capacity, competency, freedom, or (objectively) mastery (concretely, magistrate, superhuman, potentate, token of control), delegated influence: KJV-- authority, jurisdiction, liberty, power, right, strength.

uncovered: Greek word #177 akatakaluptos (ak-at-ak-al'-oop-tos); from 1 (as a negative particle) and a derivative of a compound of 2596 and 2572; unveiled: KJV-- uncovered.

shame: Greek word #819 atimia (at-ee-mee'-ah); from 820; infamy, i.e. (subjectively) comparative indignity, (objectively) disgrace: KJV-- dishonour, reproach, shame, vile.

covering: Greek word #4018 peribolaion (per-ib-ol'-ah-yon); neuter of a presumed derivative of 4016; something thrown around one, i.e. a mantle, veil: KJV-- covering, vesture.

Christ is our veil:

Heb 10:19-20
19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh; (KJV)




Other people think that Paul was giving some direction to Corinthios, because they had two population: the jews and the greeks, and to impart an order, he recommended to use the veil. That's why, so many church today don't use it, because they think that the veil is something cultural.

You can check the websites, one of them is from the catholic church, and why they stop using it.


I'm not saying is right or wrong, I believe that you have to do what you think God wants.

God bless

2006-12-02 14:17:39 · answer #1 · answered by Alondra 4 · 0 0

Social changes. Here. In other places, a scarve must be worn on the heads of women and the sexes must be seperated in church....yet, you don't see that here either.

2006-12-02 13:39:05 · answer #2 · answered by TCFKAYM 4 · 0 0

then there are those, such as the Amish and Mennonites, that wear prayer caps all the time because who knows when they'll feel the need or desire to pray?

2006-12-02 13:50:16 · answer #3 · answered by wendy_da_goodlil_witch 7 · 0 0

Eastern Orthodox Christians do use it.

2006-12-02 13:39:03 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Traditional Catholics still do.

2006-12-02 13:37:34 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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