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2 answers

Nope. The proportions of caffiene to soda would still be the same.

2006-12-02 03:49:56 · answer #1 · answered by Tigger 7 · 0 0

Think it through. (1+1) / 2 = 1

2006-12-02 11:49:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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