Can you explain them>?
ON SLAVES
Leviticus 25:46
'And You shall take the slaves as an inheritance for your children after you, to inherit them for a possession, they shall be your bondmen for ever."
THE BIRTH OF A FEMALE A DOUBLE POLLUTION
Leviticus 12: 1,2,5
WHAT TO DO TO AN APOSTATE (a disbeliever)
deutronomy 13:8,9
"Neither shall your eyes pity him (the apostate) nor shall you spare him, neither shall you try to conceal him. But you shall surely KILL him, Your hands shall be first upon him to put him to death."
I always hear Christians claiming The Muslim faith is bad because of slavery, or because of the 'killing' that goes on in their Holy book.
Maybe they haven't picked up their own Holy Book lately?
These examples are only a few.
2006-12-02
02:46:29
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31 answers
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asked by
liberty_brooks
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
my dear Pachequito- when Jesus knew there were those who wanted to slay him he told his men to gather them and bring them before him to kill them. So why dont you look that up in your bible and disprove it please?
2006-12-02
02:53:00 ·
update #1
Terry S: U just dont like me telling the truth. Im not a Muslim, and I can defend whoever I want. Thats part of being an American, not all Muslims blew up the towers there are over a billion of them in the world. Why dont you educate yourself Thanks!
2006-12-02
02:57:46 ·
update #2
LChaim: I agree.
2006-12-02
03:00:06 ·
update #3
to Fire: If God allowed slaves to pay off debts only- why does this testament say FOREVER when describing the use of slaves. ???
2006-12-02
13:52:10 ·
update #4
Christians pick and choose what they want to claim from OT laws. The laws against homosexuality they will fiercely claim as their own, but slavery, etc., is left to the ancient Jews.
2006-12-02 02:51:28
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answer #1
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answered by Sweetchild Danielle 7
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I don't think there is any explaining it. (I also don't consider myself a Christian but I do believe in God). I don't believe that slavery is right or that disbelievers should be killed. Those things are nonsense to me.
All religions and the people that follow those religions interpret their "holy book" they way that they want and use what suits their needs.
People seem to forget that the bible was written back in a time where these things were still acceptable. I mean REALLY read the bible. It's so easy to pick and choose things from the bible or any other "holy book" to suit your (I use "your" in a very general sense) needs. People also forget that a lot gets lost in translation. For centuries the bible has been translated from one language to another. How can something not get lost?
For instance the story of Sodom & Gormorah where when Lot and his daughters escape to the mountains his daughters think that they are the only people left on the earth so they sleep with their father to keep the human race going. They get the father drunk, have sex with him and become pregnant. Last time I checked that was incest. Explain that one.
I think the bible has some good stories and I think that the bible has some good teachings. There are also many contradictions. Its up to each person to decide for themselves how they will use it.
2006-12-02 03:04:32
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answer #2
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answered by Elisabeth R 3
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It is amazing that atheists seem to be so well versed in the Old Testament law. Let me explain this so you can understand, the Old Testament law or covenant was for a certain people (Israelites), for a certain time (between their leaving from Egypt until the resurrection of Christ) and a certain place. The Church is under the New Covenant instituted by Christ. We are not under Old Testament law. A rule of thumb is if a law from the Old Testament is repeated by Christ or any New Testament writer, it is to be observed by the Church. Do you know any Christians who own slaves? Have we (not the Catholic church) put to death any heretics lately? As to the birth of females a double pollution thing, here is an adequate explanation:
1. Lev 12:5 -
Some have thought that this doubling of each of the two periods was intended to remind the people of the fact that woman represents the lower side of human nature, and was the first to fall into temptation. 1Ti_2:13-15; 1Pe_3:7. The ancients had a notion that the mother suffers for a longer time after the birth of a girl than after the birth of a boy. The period required for the restoration of her health in the one case was thirty days, and in the other, it was 40 or 42 days. This notion may have been connected with a general custom of observing the distinction as early as the time of Moses.
Before trying to understand Old Testament law, take the time to study the Jewish culture of the time and the culture of those around them. It will help you understand the need for those laws at the time.
2006-12-02 03:00:39
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answer #3
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answered by BrotherMichael 6
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I don't think of these christians much, and I am not sure that they were. I do know, that this was the old law, as you do, and that Jesus didn't support that, and that it was done away with. I also know, that most of even the old tesatment people, didn't adhere to this. Also, the term Christians, wasn't even around then, it was not used, or in existence. Did you know this? Clearly not. Your question is slanted, and very obviously so. As for Muslims, they do claim to be religious, and kill and committ suicide for it. In all religions and societies in the rest of the world, this IS despicable, bottom line. As some Muslims, some nice ones, what they think of those that are extreme and terrorize. They wouldn't want to be associated.
2006-12-02 02:53:36
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answer #4
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answered by oceansnsunsets 4
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Ummm...those are from the OLD Testament, you know, like, BEFORE Jesus came?
If you're going to start blasting a religion using those verses, then what you're really doing is blasting Judaism. I KNOW no one would say they hate Jews on this forum, now, would they? That's not quite as Politically Correct as blasting Christians, you know, not quite as Fashionable.
Try reading the Bible, both Old AND New Testaments, if you're interested in finding out about the Christian religion.
2006-12-02 02:55:08
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Well christians do not fall under the laws of the old testament, as we have an inhanced covenant with God through the grace of Jesus. So while we read the old testament for historical fact and for a guideline of how to treat others (10 commandments), we are responsible for treating others and conducting our lives as Jesus did by following His example. When Muhammad (PBUH) died, there was no further enlightenment or inhanced covenant with Allah to prevent the muslim for falling the letter of the WHOLE qu'ran in it's entirety including the parts which tell of killing the infidels and shedding the blood of all who do not convert any other way.
2006-12-02 02:52:40
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answer #6
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answered by mortgagegirl101 6
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The answers can be found in the Talmud. Unfortunately, Christians have managed to keep its existance a well-hidden secret. The Tenach (Old Testament) is the Law. The interpretation of the law can be found in the Talmud.
Can you imagine reading our law codes 5000 years in the future and trying to create a culture around them without having case law to refer to? It would certainly paint a gloomy picture of our society! Atrocities occur and the law provides punishment, but those atrocities are extremely rare!
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2006-12-02 02:53:19
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answer #7
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answered by Hatikvah 7
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Some of the people on here are saying "do you know of any christians who own slaves today>"
yeah- I'm a product of slavery when they came to the US and killed my mothers ancestors (the Native Americans) My g-grandmother was a slave. The white man never married her she was his housekeeper and had 3 of his children.
Who do you think the slave owners were in America before the GOVERNMENT changed the law? Do you think those slave owners were not Christians?
2006-12-02 03:12:32
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answer #8
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answered by Angelina27 3
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Don't knock something until you know something about it.First of all these are old testament Scriptures. This mean Jesus has not come on the scene. They were many hard Mosaic laws.before Jesus shed his blood for us. You can not take Scriptures out of contexts I CAN'T BEGIN TO ANSWER your question here. You need serious Bible study classes. When you read the Bible you need to know who's speaking, to whom they are speaking, what was going at the time. Any true Christian will tell you this. I don't expect Best answer from you for this answer from you, I expect it from him (Jesus ) this time. lots of love *-*
2006-12-02 02:59:34
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answer #9
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answered by Sugar 7
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Those were CHRISTIANS?
Are you sure you can read English well?
Nowhere in the Bible did Jesus tell His disciples to bring the men who wanted to kill Him so that the disciples could kill those men. On the contrary, when Peter wanted to fight such men with a sword, Jesus told him to put away his sword.
2006-12-02 03:13:27
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answer #10
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answered by flandargo 5
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