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It is question about on cricket match,

2006-12-01 20:31:45 · 18 answers · asked by vivana 1 in Sports Cricket

18 answers

because bowler bowl a no ball.
on 1st ball 1st batsman hits a 6.next ball was a no ball .on that ball he takes a single .on the last ball second batsman hits 6.

2006-12-01 20:40:00 · answer #1 · answered by pankaj a 1 · 0 0

As long as you allow for no-balls there are several ways to achieve this. And theoretically I can have an infinite number of no-balls. So there is no challenge in that.

However, the best 'non no-ball' scenario is:

Batsman#1 hits the ball into the deep field. And the batsmen run 3 runs. However, the fielder's throw back is a bad throw and goes for 4 overthrows. So a total of 7 runs accrue to batsman#1. His century gets completed. And he ends up on the non-striker's end.

Next ball, batsman#2 hits for a 6 and completes his century too.

2006-12-01 20:48:36 · answer #2 · answered by Rahul R 1 · 0 0

Score a six in no ball and get single the next ball to give the other ont the strike then he hits a six

Or else score a 3 and get a overthrow four
the next ball other one score six

therefore Bat1 101 Bat2 100

2006-12-02 03:17:54 · answer #3 · answered by Vinod 2 · 0 0

I don't remember if in modern days cricket 7 runs on one single delivery has ever been taken. We have to check it if 7 runs can be taken on one ball weather over throws or whatever but if it is not possible then there is no way both batsmen can get to their hundreds without bowler bowling atleast one bo ball.

2006-12-02 03:09:16 · answer #4 · answered by dua 4 · 0 0

The batsmen would be hitting a lot of sixes and the bowler would be bowling a lot of no balls and wides an the fielding would be very poor.

2006-12-01 21:45:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

may be the ball was a no ball & the 1st batsman scored a century & then in the next ball they take a single run & againits a noball & the 2nd batsman hits a six .so both the batsman score a century

2006-12-01 20:47:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Batsman 1 gets 3 runs and go to next place and then over throw is made and on fourth run he gets out....
Now Batsman 1 gets 100 and moves out....
next batsman come in and now batsman 2 will be on strike....
then he will make 6...
Now he is on 100....
Thats it the match is over by both getting century....


All Check by working out... It is the real answer....

2006-12-02 21:26:09 · answer #7 · answered by Pearl 2 · 0 0

One hits and scores three runs,meanwhile the throw from the fielder results in 4 runs over throw .So gets total 7runs.The other batsman is now at the strikers end.He hits a six and completes his century

2006-12-01 20:52:33 · answer #8 · answered by jayaraman n--chemm 4 · 0 0

first batsman hited the second last ball for a six.(he is now had a century).
next ball which is called as no ball by umpire first bats man took a single.
On the last ball the second batsman on strike he hitted that ball for a six(so bath had the century nd they won the match!!!!!!!)

2006-12-01 22:11:49 · answer #9 · answered by jammu 2 · 0 0

one first ball the first batsman played a short and ran for three runs. on the third run they got overthrough for four and the batsman got 7 runs and completed his century. the next ball will face another batsman and will hit six to complete his century

2006-12-03 15:51:34 · answer #10 · answered by Farooq A 1 · 0 0

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