why did both Italy and Germany during the early to mid 1900s turn to the ideology of Fascism??
And why was it logical for them to develop it?
2006-12-01 13:02:43 · 2 answers · asked by Kyle W 3 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
Maybe because they didn't think they're government was aggressive enough. They probably needed, or though they did, more power. It's logical for them to develop it for the same reason it is for America to have a democracy.
2006-12-01 13:05:36 · answer #1 · answered by Coalie 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
did you know by any chance that the west actually liked their philosophy before hitler went off the deep end. in north america at before the war and during, there was a fascist[nazi] party in both canada and the united states. governments loved the idea of more power with less work.
many countries governments looked favorably on the nazis before the war. even after it started, the rise against the nazis was slow, not speedy, in trying to stop them. this happened when some of them became aware that the nazis would conquer them too
2006-12-01 21:16:13 · answer #2 · answered by free thinker 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋