Income is defined as profit from company/corporate activity i.e. gains NOT labor exchanged for money.Why is this allowed to go on
2006-12-01 04:07:42 · 5 answers · asked by Paul I 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Other - Politics & Government
stae tax,gasoline tax ,municipal tax and such are more than adequate for services provided
2006-12-01 04:12:28 · update #1
MANY HAVE REFUSED TO PAY CITING PRECEDENT CASES AND HAVE BEEN FOUND INNOCENT BY A JURY
2006-12-01 04:19:38 · update #2
tHE SAME HAS HAPPENNED IN CANADA AS WELL.Including an aquiantance of mine who just won his 22 appeal by Revenue CANADA.hE WON THE OTHER21 AS WELL
2006-12-01 04:21:28 · update #3
I would not follow this advice. It will get get you in trouble with the IRS and will cost you in fines and back taxes in the long run.
Checkout the IRS article below about Frivolous Arguments on Paying Taxes
2006-12-01 04:26:25 · answer #1 · answered by Mad Jack 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You are correct. There is no law on the IRS books because the IRS does not make the law.
There are Federal laws and an amendment to the US Constitution that says that you have to pay your share of the taxes.
2006-12-01 04:19:40 · answer #2 · answered by MikeGolf 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Think they're not required by law? Don't pay them and see what happens. Use your head, now. Someone has to pay for the services...
2006-12-01 04:15:27 · answer #3 · answered by Alecto 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Try not paying them. It will catch up with you sooner or later.
2006-12-01 04:13:05 · answer #4 · answered by bumpusemt 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because you demand the govt provide you services.
2006-12-01 04:10:38 · answer #5 · answered by godoompah 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋