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I was lately reading leviticus and theres some things i dont understand. it says:Leviticus 20

20And if a man shall lie with his uncle's wife, he hath uncovered his uncle's nakedness: they shall bear their sin; they shall die childless.
I dont understand this because i know someone who has had sex with his uncles wife and has had children, but here it says they will die childless. is that because this was written before Jesus was born to forgive our sins? or does this still apply? i dont understand.

2006-11-30 12:27:53 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

18 answers

Leviticus is one of the funniest books in the Bible.

Seriously. Read it and don't tell me you can't laugh.

2006-11-30 12:29:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 4 1

Obviously, it's possible to have children by having sex with an aunt or uncle (also prohibited). Read the "die childless" as a sort of curse--a way of saying that the guilty ones are cast out and the tribe will not recognize any heirs. If God doesn't curse them with childlessness, the tribe will effectively make it so.
Such punishment was called a 'karet' in Hebrew. There were 613 rules in the Old Testament Law. Jesus on the one hand said he wasn't here to do away with the Law, and on the other hand he showed that there are more important things than details of the Law (Sabbath was made for man and not the other way around, for example). St. Paul vigorously and successfully taught that Christians are freed from strictures of the Law.
So does this apply to Christians? Well, coveting your uncle's wife is banned by the Ten Commandments--a part of the Law that all Christians have agreed to follow.

2006-11-30 12:51:37 · answer #2 · answered by TheGoodFather 2 · 0 0

I am not familiar with this passage and am not a theologian, therefore this is simply my interpretation from reading it as it is provided.

I don't think that such a literal approach should be taken when reading this passage. It may very well be true that God would punish the two people involved in the sin in such a situation by not allowing them to have children, but I think the point is that what they are doing is a sin, and "they shall bear their sin." This obviously does not just apply to a man who sleeps with his uncle's wife, but also if someone sleeps with the spouse of another relative or of anyone for that matter. This uncle example is exactly that: an example.

I interpreted the part that says "he hath uncovered his uncle's nakedness" to mean that he has imposed on his uncle's private life and invaded what goes on in the privacy of his uncle's bedroom by sleeping with his uncle's wife.

2006-11-30 12:39:26 · answer #3 · answered by Lisa 2 · 0 2

Verses 10-21 Sins against the seventh commandment are here ordered to be severely punished. These are sins which, of all others, fools are most apt to make a mock at; but God would teach those the heinousness of the guilt by the extremity of the punishment that would not otherwise be taught it. I. Lying with another man’s wife was made a capital crime. The adulterer and the adulteress that had joined in the sin must fall alike under the sentence: they shall both be put to death, v. 10. Long before this, even in Job’s time, this was reputed a heinous crime and an iniquity to be punished by the judges, Job 31:11. It is a presumptuous contempt of an ordinance of God, and a violation of his covenant, Prov. 2:17. It is an irreparable wrong to the injured husband, and debauches the mind and conscience of both the offenders as much as any thing. It is a sin which headstrong and unbridled lusts hurry men violently to, and therefore it needs such a powerful restraint as this. It is a sin which defiles a land and brings down God’s judgments upon it, which disquiets families, and tends to the ruin of all virtue and religion, and therefore is fit to be animadverted upon by the conservators of the public peace: but see Jn. 8:3–11. II. Incestuous connections, whether by marriage or not. 1. Some of them were to be punished with death, as a man’s lying with his father’s wife, v. 11. Reuben would have been put to death for his crime (Gen. 35:22) if this law had been then made. It was the sin of the incestuous Corinthian, for which he was to be delivered unto Satan, 1 Co. 5:1, 5. A man’s debauching his daughter-in-law, or his mother-in-law, or his sister, was likewise to be punished with death, v. 12, 14, 17. 2. Others of them God would punish with the curse of barrenness, as a man’s defiling his aunt, or his brother’s wife (v. 19–21): They shall die childless. Those that keep not within the divine rules of marriage forfeit the blessings of marriage: They shall commit whoredom, and shall not increase, Hos. 4:10. Nay it is said, They shall bear their iniquity, that is, though they be not immediately cut off by the hand either of God or man for this sin, yet the guilt of it shall lie upon them, to be reckoned for another day, and not be purged with sacrifice or offering. III. The unnatural lusts of sodomy and bestiality (sins not to be mentioned without horror) were to be punished with death, as they are at this day by our law, v. 13, 15, 16. Even the beast that was thus abused was to be killed with the sinner, who was thereby openly put to the greater shame: and the villany was thus represented as in the highest degree execrable and abominable, all occasions of the remembrance or mention of it being to be taken away. Even the unseasonable use of the marriage, if presumptuous, and in contempt of the law, would expose the offenders to the just judgment of God: they shall be cut off, v. 18. For this is the will of God, that every man should possess his vessel (and the wife is called the weaker vessel) in sanctification and honour, as becomes saints.

2006-11-30 12:34:50 · answer #4 · answered by drgnotary 3 · 1 1

It's because those were special laws that God gave to the Israelites. I'm sure there were plenty of pagan nations around at that time where someone had sex with their uncle's wife and a pregnancy resulted.

It probably means that any children that were born from such a union among the Isrealites were not considered to be their "official" children when it came to carrying on the family line and receiving an inheritance.

2006-11-30 12:37:13 · answer #5 · answered by Martin S 7 · 0 2

By designating certain common but extremely harmful acts as capital offenses, the divinely given judicial decisions stood out as unique among the laws of contemporary nations. Surrounding peoples engaged in bestiality, sodomy, incest, and other degraded practices that were injurious to mental, physical, and spiritual well-being. (Le 18:6-30; 20:10-23) Therefore, Jehovah’s judicial decisions, if obeyed, would have elevated the nation of Israel. With Jehovah’s blessing, Israel’s strict adherence to his commands would have resulted in observable benefits, causing other nations to say: “This great nation is undoubtedly a wise and understanding people.” (De 4:4-6)

2006-11-30 12:54:38 · answer #6 · answered by papavero 6 · 0 0

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2016-10-08 00:58:09 · answer #7 · answered by ribbs 4 · 0 0

Making sex with uncle's wife is forbiden.If a nephew did it he will get great sin.Adultery or whoring was prohibited by God.He will die childless because the kids belonged to his uncle.

2006-11-30 12:38:47 · answer #8 · answered by ? 7 · 0 2

Mysteries

2006-11-30 12:31:05 · answer #9 · answered by royce r 4 · 2 0

Any OT passage has to be taken in context e.g where and who God was speaking to. Here God is speaking into a specific situation here you cannot apply it literally to your own life or every situation. But Jesus did also die in order to 'do away' with these laws

2006-11-30 12:34:18 · answer #10 · answered by bcooper_au 6 · 0 2

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