He (he is a Peruvian native by the way) married his second wife (she is also peruvian) in Peru two months before the judge finalized our (I'm American) divorce here in the U.S. He is now seeking a divorce from her, however, I am curious if he can invalidate the marriage by stating he wasn't divorced before he married her. If he does this, will he be charged with Bigamy? Would it be better just do go through the divorce procedure in Peru and not say anything about the other divorce not being final (he's the only one that knows, she doesn't)?
2006-11-30 09:12:16 · 5 answers · asked by AnswerWhore 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
I don't know, but he sounds like an awful man (thank goodness for you that you are mvoing on). It sounds like he could be charged for bigamy.
2006-11-30 09:14:40 · answer #1 · answered by Draga M. 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is so not your business. He is no longer your husband, he is guilty of bigamy, but the odds are way against him going up for it. He better have a heart-to-heart with his lawyer though, he wasn't ever legally married to #2 so he doesn't need a divorce.
Its a big world, unless he has some money or property, no one will notice.
2006-11-30 09:17:03 · answer #2 · answered by justa 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He should get a divorce in Peru and not open up the bigamy cans of worms from the USA, for which he could go to jail
2016-05-23 05:58:47 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Honey, yes he can be charged and imprisoned..if you know where and when it took place and have the bum locked up! Do us all a favor!
2006-11-30 09:16:38 · answer #4 · answered by Sassy 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I can't help but ask, why do you care?
2006-11-30 09:38:54 · answer #5 · answered by atiana 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋