He married his second wife in Peru two months before the judge finalized our divorce here in the U.S. He is now seeking a divorce from her, however, I am curious if he can invalidate the marriage by stating he wasn't divorced before he married her. If he does this, will he be charged with Bigamy? Would it be better just do go through the divorce procedure in Peru and not say anything about the other divorce not being final (he's the only one that knows, she doesn't)?
2006-11-30 09:06:17 · 4 answers · asked by AnswerWhore 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
HA! He was asking abou that earlier!
2006-11-30 09:08:24 · answer #1 · answered by smellyfoot ™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am assuming you all divorced in good standing ,or you all are trying to get back together since you seem to want to help him. But back to your question, the marriage to the woman from Peru is no good, and he could get charged with it in "Peru", and here if it is found out.. Get an attorney who deals with international affairs, and they should be able to help you without him ever having to go back to Peru. It might be costly, but you never know.
2006-11-30 09:12:09 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are being too nice, I would call the courts and tell them he married someone in Peru before he divorced you, and let them take him as soon as he puts foot in the United States, and if he is here, let them pick him up now. Now, honey, that is just me, I am vengeful when done wrong.
2006-11-30 09:15:11 · answer #3 · answered by Boricua Born 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Its considered bigamy.If they find out he could be jailed when he gets back to the states .
2006-11-30 09:10:23 · answer #4 · answered by dianehaggart 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋