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17 answers

Yes because the person abusing is breaking their marriage commitment to treat the other as Christ treated the church. Physically hurting the other violates faith that the other will protect them. Matthew 5:32 "But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery." I believe abuse falls in the unfaithfulness. Matthew 19:8 "Jesus replied, "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning." If someone is abusing their spouse then it falls into a hardened heart and under old testament law where a divorce is allowed.

2006-11-30 07:41:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

"Sometimes lost in the debate over the exception clause is the fact that whatever “marital unfaithfulness” means, it is an allowance for divorce, not a requirement for divorce. Even when adultery is committed a couple can, through God’s grace, learn to forgive and begin rebuilding their marriage. God has forgiven us of so much more. Surely we can follow His example and even forgive the sin of adultery (Ephesians 4:32). However, in many instances, a spouse is unrepentant and continues in sexual immorality. That is where Matthew 19:9 can possibly be applied. Many also look too quickly to remarriage after a divorce when God might desire them to remain single. God sometimes calls a person to be single so that their attention is not divided (1 Corinthians 7:32-35). Remarriage after a divorce may be an option in some circumstances, but that does not mean it is the only option.

It is distressing that the divorce rate among professing Christians is nearly as high as that of the unbelieving world. The Bible makes it abundantly clear that God hates divorce (Malachi 2:16) and that reconciliation and forgiveness should be the marks of a believer’s life (Luke 11:4; Ephesians 4:32). However, God recognizes that divorces will occur, even among His children. A divorced and/or remarried believer should not feel any less loved by God, even if their divorce and/or remarriage is not covered under the possible exception clause of Matthew 19:9. God often uses even the sinful disobedience of Christians to accomplish great good."

2006-11-30 08:15:56 · answer #2 · answered by Bruce Leroy - The Last Dragon 3 · 0 0

There are biblical standards for divorce. While abuse is not mentioned among them, I honestly do not believe God wants a person living in an abusive situation. I believe it's acceptable to seperate in such a case. I noticed you didn't say divorce. Perhaps if the person gets the message that abuse absolutely will not be tolerated, then a peaceful marriage and reconciliation would be possible because sometimes the abuse ends when the abuser realizes what's really at steak. And above all, do NOT stay in a dangerous relationship!

2006-11-30 07:41:42 · answer #3 · answered by ? 5 · 0 0

Seperation isn't really addressed seperately from divorce except in 1 Cor 7:10ff. The discussion Jesus was dragged into in Matthew was a dispute between the two Rabbinic schools of his day, Shammai and Hillel, on what constituted grounds for divorce. Shammai, a conservative, allowed divorce only for unchastity. Hillel, since Moses did not set forth sufficient grounds but merely the procedure, took the view that you could divorce your wife for any reason, no matter how trivial, such as burning your breakfast. This seems obviously unjust in my mind, particularly since women thus abandoned were so vulnerable.

In the dialogue in Matthew could Jesus have really meant to exclude murder? Attempted murder? Torture? Beatings? Assaults resulting in blindness, loss of a limb, etc? Treating these crimes as less severe than unfaithfulness? No he could not mean to exclude as grounds those acts, since regardless of whether the perpetrator is a spouse, the acts would be criminal under Levitical law, which also holds forth the absolute right of self-defense. So, if a husband tries to murder his wife, she wouldn't need a divorce since the law would provide that he die for his crime. No need to divorce a dead man.

I think at minimum, even in strict interpretation, you have to ascertain if the abuse constitutes a Levitical crime, or abandonment. Physical assault certainly would. Leaving the home indefinitely, and/or non-support certainly would. But verbal and emotional abuse doesn't seem to meet the test any way you construct it.

2006-11-30 13:31:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The only case in which divorce is a option for a christian is unfaithfulness, the bible says that it is allowed but not a preferred option. As for the case of abuse it is not, but that does not mean you have to submit to it. In abusive situations call the police and/or go to a shelter, get help.

"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery."
Matthew 19:9

2006-11-30 07:45:00 · answer #5 · answered by andrew_w_potter 1 · 0 0

It varies from state to state...but it is a good idea to consult a lawyer so that you are aware of your rights and that of your spouse when it comes to the home, bank accounts, child visitation, etc. They can also tell you what the definition of a legal separation is in your state.

2016-05-23 05:39:13 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

As sad as it seems no. The church of England was founded by Henry the 8th in order to allow him to obtain a divorce from catherine of aragon, and that is how divorce came to be "allowed". In Catholicism you can obtain an annulment, but I am not sure as to the details of what grounds would allow it.

2006-11-30 07:36:59 · answer #7 · answered by bensbabe 4 · 0 0

No. The bible does not give rights to women. See Dueteronomy 22:28-29 where it says if a woman is raped she must marry her rapist. Abuse is perfectly fine according to the bible.

2006-11-30 08:05:17 · answer #8 · answered by Jesus Pleaseus 2 · 0 0

And when you divorce women and they reach the end of their period, prevent them not from marrying their husbands, if they agree between themselves in a decent manner. This an admonition for him among you who believes in Allah and the Last Day. It is more blessed for you and purer; and Allah knows but you know not.

2006-11-30 07:35:07 · answer #9 · answered by MUHAMMAD 3 · 0 0

The Bible does not require that a spouse submit to abuse or violence.

2006-11-30 07:33:44 · answer #10 · answered by kingstubborn 6 · 2 0

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