I read somewhere that Mary, Jesus' mother was ALSO an imacculate baby.. that her mother gave birth to her in much the same curcumstance as Mary had with Jesus.. (meaning) that an angel came to Mary's mother and said that she was going to become pregnant.. if the baby was a boy then he would be the son of god.. blah blah.. but if the baby was a girl, then she would be the vessel for the coming of the son of god.. is there any reference to this in the bible.. or is it just a bunch of crazies making things up?
2006-11-30 02:45:50 · 14 answers · asked by Imani 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
This is bad theology concocted by the enemy to turn the focus away from Christ. You will not find this in the bible at all. You are right when you say that it came from crazies. NEVER let anyone or any doctrine turn your eyes off the true and ONLY Savior...Jesus Christ
1Ti 4:1 Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith, giving heed to seducing spirits, and doctrines of devils...
Hbr 13:9 Be not carried about with divers and strange doctrines.
2006-11-30 22:49:25 · answer #1 · answered by the_sulu_dance 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I guess I will just repeat what others, including Father K, gummibear and Tonks have said above. The belief in the Immaculate Conception of Mary is a Roman Catholic idea, I am not aware of any other denominations which agree. Many Catholics, and most under the age of fifty, mistakenly think that the Immaculate Conception refers to the conception of Jesus. We Catholics do not use the term "conception" regarding Jesus. The angel Gabriel announced to Mary that she was with child. This is called "The Annunciation".
I cannot cite chapter and verse - in the book of Luke the Angel comes to Mary and says something to the effect of "The Lord is with you" and "You have found favor with God". In addition, the book of Revelation mentions the Queen of Heaven and her son. Catholic doctrine uses this as biblical support for the Immaculate Conception of Mary and the Assumption of Mary.
The feast of the Immaculate Conception is on December 8th by the way. The Assumption is in August (the 15th? Or is that the crowning of Mary?). Not sure how these dates were chosen.
Off the subject, we Catholics agree that Mary cannot forgive sins. She is also not the savior.
2006-11-30 11:34:07 · answer #2 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The dogma of the Immaculate Concept applies to the conception of Mary in the womb of Anna, her mother. (Many people mistakenly think that it is about the conception of Jesus.) This is a doctrine of the Roman Catholic Church. It is not a doctrine of the Orthodox Church, which is the oldest branch of Christianity. It is not a doctrine in the Anglican or Protestant branches either.
The reason the theologians came up with this idea is because they were trying to understand how Jesus could be both born of a woman and free of original sin. Personally I think that the Orthodox view makes more sense. The Orthrodox say that Mary was cleansed of orginial sin just before or at the same moment as the conception of Jesus. In this way Jesus could be born without sin.
For more information see here:
http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/07674d.htm
2006-11-30 11:05:50 · answer #3 · answered by tonks_op 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is not true and not Biblical, Mary was a regular child from what we get from the word of God the Bible. However, she was holy because God choose her to be the vessel for the son of God to enter this world through. But what the Catholic church does in deifying her is not Biblical and she cannot forgive sins either only Jesus can.
2006-11-30 10:51:03 · answer #4 · answered by Damian 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.
When the angel Gabriel called Mary, "Full of grace," Mary was already full of grace.
When the angel Gabriel said, "The Lord is with you," the Lord was already with her.
The Blessed Virgin Mary was in a state of grace before she says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a another purpose.
When did Mary's state of grace begin?
Catholics believe this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit the taint of original sin.
God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.
With love in Christ.
2006-12-01 01:07:58 · answer #5 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That's the Roman Catholic dogma on the Immaculate Conception, yes. While there is some basis in Tradition and some theological reasoning behind it....I don't buy it.
I think the doctrine takes away from Jesus' human nature...which is just as much of a heresy as taking away from His divinity.
Your mileage may vary.
Check it out for yourself
2006-11-30 10:51:29 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The only time the angel came to her was with the birth of Jesus, but after that she had the rest of her kids like any other woman.
2006-11-30 10:48:57 · answer #7 · answered by world's greatest hero 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That is false, and I know of no church that teaches that idea. According to the Catholic Church, Mary was conceived without the effects of original sin that the rest of us are subject to, because God lifted that burden from her at the moment of her conception. But biologically she was conceived the same way we all were.
.
2006-11-30 11:16:59 · answer #8 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was concived without original sin. That is why catholic celebrate the Immaculate Conception on 12/8. Mary had to have had no original sin because Jesus would have been tainted by it. This allowed for Jesus to be FULLY human and DIVINE.
2006-11-30 10:54:34 · answer #9 · answered by gummibeargoddess 3 · 1⤊ 2⤋
I think the whole concept of a divine conception is a little weird. There is one way to become pregnant and there is nothing emmaculate about it.
2006-11-30 10:54:41 · answer #10 · answered by KathyS 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋