e.g, they pronounce 'city' as ' see-dy' ; 'matter' as 'mair-der'
Is it the so-called Candian accent? They usually come from which part of Canada?
2006-11-30 00:03:36 · 9 answers · asked by questioner 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
French-speaking Canadian have a pronunciation different from France's French, in that they palatalize the T, making it sound like a TS, and the nasals are slightly different. Some vowels are much longer. Some diphthongs are different too, like "OI" that is "WAH" in France but "WAY" in Canada.
Still, Canadian French is based on 17Th Century French, and is as such the more genuine one!
Vive le Quebec! :)
2006-11-30 02:01:16 · answer #1 · answered by F R 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
this is a weird question but ok, i'll bide..ooops I mean bite. lol.
I am Canadian and pronouncing my t's is not a problem. I think you may be talking more about eastern Canada as I live in the west. In eastern Canada they have a few accents over there because the majority are french with french accents, and people from the far eastern coast line have their own accent too that sounds like that of the french a bit. But here on the western coast we do not have that accent at all. No one could tell if I were Canadian or the average American. Been to the states many times and depending on where you go, the dialect is different there to.
I'm sorry Alpine, But I'm from Alberta and that's just a glorrified way of explaining plain old laziness!
2006-11-30 08:16:58 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I'm not sure what the accent you're describing is, but I am Canadian (I'm from Montreal, English mother tongue) and I usually "flap" my t's when they come between two vowels. I pronounce "matter" and "madder" and "waiter" and "wader" essentially the same, but I don't stretch my vowels as you seem to be hearing.
It's not that we CAN'T pronounce the t sound, just that it's easier not to have to switch from a voiced vowel to a voiceless stop and then back again. Pretty common reason for any linguistic evolution.
2006-11-30 08:47:17 · answer #3 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
It's possible that this dropping of the 't' (a glottal stop) is a hold over from English english where in such places as the South of England this linguistic practise occurs. It could also be an influence from the French language.
2006-11-30 08:09:02 · answer #4 · answered by darestobelieve 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It sounds to me like you are speaking of French-Canadians. My understanding is that they come from the region around Quebec. As to why, it's the french accent. You get a simliar accent in southern Louisiana in the U.S. among the Cajun people who learn French at home.
2006-11-30 08:14:09 · answer #5 · answered by rbwtexan 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
I am Canadian and pronounce the "t". Where did you get such reliable information pertaining to the "Canadian accent"?
2006-11-30 08:07:52 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
east canada
2006-12-03 23:21:06 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Wacky tobacky has left their tongues numb. Jealous?
2006-11-30 08:05:17 · answer #8 · answered by crispy 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
They've been taught to pronounce it differently.
2006-11-30 08:04:36 · answer #9 · answered by michael2003c2003 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋