If Christianity and Judaism are patriarchal religions, are the lineages patriarchal also?

Question

I read somewhere that the lineages in Jewish culture were actually passed down by the mother. Yet in the Bible, they are listed by fathers only, with the exception of Ruth and Mary. Since neither culture/religion at those times gave women any worth at all, it seems strange in that context that they would be chosen to be listed rather than their husbands if the idea of patriarchal lineage is true. Does anyone know what the actual procedure was with that?

If that is the case, then why was the lineage recorded in Matthew for example, fathers only? Unless Matthew and the other writers were not familiar with Jewish custom?

Answer 1

membership to the jewish religion is passed down through the mother (except in cases of conversion), while tribal membership is passed down through the father.

for example, if a jewish man and a christian woman had a child, the baby would not be jewish and has no tribal lineage even though his father was jewish. but if a jewish woman and a christian man had a child, the baby is legally jewish, but still has no tribal lineage, since his father had none.

it has been this way for thousands of years, and the basis for this procedure comes from biblical verses.

"If that is the case, then why was the lineage recorded in Matthew for example, fathers only? Unless Matthew and the other writers were not familiar with Jewish custom?"

and voila, you have there one of the basic reasons jews do not accept jesus as the messiah.

Answer 2

No, you are right. Christianity spread out among non-Jews, so lineage tended to follow the patriarchal norm, but in Jewish culture it has been traditionally traced through the mother. Even today, that is how it is done. If, for instance, you want to participate in the Jewish Heritage trips to Israel (really cheap, sponsored by the state) your mother has to have been Jewish. Otherwise, you're not considered Jewish (ethnically). You make a good point, though, about the ancestries listed in the Bible. My only guess is that the matriarchal lineage was just used on the recent level, possibly due to problem in definitely determining paternity. Due to the patriarchal nature of the society, however, official longer lineages were traced through the male.

Answer 3

Judaism has always been Patriarchal except in recent times, past 1000 years or so. But there was the switch to matriarchal due to fathers of families missing for various reasons. Jewish culture had always proved lineage through the father. But due to wars, oppression, sickness, Jewish fathers died and many children couldn't prove their heritage. So the Rabbis and sages decided to allow proof of lineage through the mother.

This was at first the inclusive method. Over time this changed from being "inclusive" to "exclusive" - that the only proof of lineage is through the mother. Why this changed, even the rabbis have difficulty answering that.

So, the Judaism of today (matriarchal) isn't the same Judaism of long ago (patriarchal).

Answer 4

i think you need to read again, what ever book you saw it.