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For example, when Isreal came out of Egyptian slavery, and finally reached the promised land, the 12 tribes were given some time-sensitive commands: stuff they were only supposed to have to do once. The complete destruction of Jericho is one example, as is the command to stone Aachan and his entire family. While there were many "forever laws", like the 10 Commandments, some commands were a one-time event. Does the Koran have any "one-time only" commandments in it? A lot of people like to quote the "kill all the infidels" and "don't be friends with Jews and Christians" verses, as proof of the Muslim faiths xenophobia, but are these commands time-sensitive? Are they commands for all time, or did they address a singular event in the life of Mohammed?

2006-11-29 15:05:00 · 4 answers · asked by MamaBear 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

the 10 commandments
http://www.islam-usa.com/e70.htm


regarding Moses and the Pharaoh read surah Al Baqarah

http://www.muslimaccess.com/quraan/arabic/002.asp


EDIT:
Oh dear, those don't even EXIST in the Quran. First, the "kill all infidels" thing is nothing more than a stupid Lie.
there are chapters that speak of battles between the Muslims and the Pagans when the Muslims were a minority and being oppressed. but it never said "kill all infidels" not in that sense.

second, the "don't be friends with Jews and Christians" also is bad translation. the verse speaks of time of war, the Arabic word Awliaa was translated by some idiot to mean friends>> it doesn't mean friends, it means Protectors of faith. the idea behind it is when the Muslims made an alliance with the Jews of Madinah, the Jews betrayed them and helped their enemies (pagans) instead.
every thing in Islam makes sense and all it takes is the desire to know and understand things first hand.

it's very important to understand the historical events behind those chapters and when you understand the context it will be clear that those verses were only addressing Muslims at that particular time and in that particular event. and NOT to be carried out without the Prophet's authority.
i as a Muslim understand those things but the lazy majority of non-Muslims won't understand them because they are too lazy to research any thing.
like chapter 9 (surah Al Tawbah) which people LOVE to quote from speaks of the battle of Badr the first battle between the Muslims and the Pagan tribe of Qurish.

there's a significant difference between the Bible and the Quran.
the bible has the word of God, the words of the prophets and the words of the historians all in one book. the Quran is only the words of God revealed to the Prophet and has been preserved in this holy book unchanged ever since. the history is in separate books and the oral traditions of the Prophet (pbuh) is also in other separate books.

and then we have the books which contain the commentary (explanation) of the Quran and the Sunnah.

so i hope you get the idea of what i'm trying to say!

peace

2006-11-29 15:14:07 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

Most of the Qur'anic text is time-insensitive, but there are verses in the later Medina suras that came down to specifically resolve issues that were confronting the Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) during the late part of his lifetime at that city (previously called Yathrib).

There are also other examples that may or may not be time-sensitive, depending on who is interpreting them...

2006-11-29 15:10:34 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3 0

I think there is something in the Koran about marrying a girl before she turns 13. Mohammed was very big on very young girls. Today we call it pedophilia. Back then, it was a high-five, up high and down low.......

2006-11-29 15:12:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

No. The Koran is so vague, nebulous and seemingly open to various interpretations.

2006-11-29 15:10:55 · answer #4 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 0 4

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