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It was nearly 400 AD before the trinity ever became commonplace in religious circles.

2006-11-28 13:50:43 · 11 answers · asked by Southern Apostolic 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

The "trinity" was and is actually pagan in origin going back as far as Nimrod. He was the first recorded human “deity”.

However, if you check out the catholic doctrine you will find that it is the foundation of all their dogma.

The Bible is plain that Christ was and is the Son of the Living God. John chapter 14, 17 will destroy the “trinity”. Read the letters from Paul, how does he open them up? Even the devil knows there is one God and he trembles (the Book of James). If one believes that Christ is the Son of God then he can overcome the world (sin) (1 John).

They say that it is a mystery this “trinity” but it does and will lead people down the path to destruction, for it is a false teaching created by satan himself.

Proverbs chapter 8 the last half or so is all about the Son of God.

And another thing the church was not built upon “Peter” for he is not the “rock”. If one reads carefully they will easily see through this lie and find that Peter said that Jesus was “The Christ” “The Son of The Living God” and it is upon this “rock” that the church is built on, not “Peter”

So, here is yet another false doctrine of the church. They are the ones that brought in the “trinity” and it seems that almost everyone is following after her (Revelation 13)!

This is not a PRO-TEST-ANTdoctrine.

If the “we” and “us” from Genesis means that God and His Son are part of the “trinity” (three gods in one), then was “he” was talking to himself when God said let us make “man in our imagine? And remember that the next verse states the God created man in HIS imagine, the word “his” is very singular and never plural! When Christ was in the garden praying to the “Father” I guess that he was really talking to himself also? And when Christ was on the cross and he called out to His Father he was really calling out to another part of himself? When the Mary’s saw Christ after He was risen and he said, “do not touch me for I have not yet ascended unto “my Father your Father” My God your God” who was He speaking of, Himself?

2006-11-28 14:07:08 · answer #1 · answered by David R 4 · 2 2

Really, because even though the doctrine of the trinity is never explicitly stated, you will discover all sorts of interesting things when you read.

1) There is a lot of talk about the Father

2) There is plenty of talk about the Son

3) There is also plenty of talk regarding the Holy Spirit.

And it is clear that they function as one entity, and aren't three completely seperate bodies, yet they aren't completley one either.

Does the Bible come right out and explain it perfectly in the terms we use, no. But if you think about each member of the trinity, how they refer to each other, and how they interact, it is the most logical conclusion.

p.s. -- Did you know that you will find the doctrine of atheism everywhere except scripture? *s*

Sorry, but the question I asked is just about on the same level as the one you asked.

2006-11-28 13:58:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Your initial statement is completely without merit.

Tertullian, one of the early church fathers, coined the term "Trinity." The word actually means "three-ness." Tertullian was an ardent supporter of orthodoxy in the church, and was one of the greatest defenders of the historic Christian faith.

A man named Arius was considered an arch-heretic of the church by denying that Jesus was God. This is one of the reasons the Council of Nicea was formed, to hash out what Christians believed about the nature of God. (Funny story: Nicolas, the bishop of Myra, Turkey, who is now known as St Nicholas/Santa Claus, slapped Arius across the face for denying that Christ was God. Nicolas was relieved of his position as bishop because of his rude behavior. He was later restored when he repented.)

The term "Trinity" is not found in the Scriptures, but the doctrine is clearly displayed. There are many times where Jesus said of Himself that He was God. He applied the name of God, "I AM," to Himself in several passages. Here's a few examples: Matthew 14:27, Mark 6:50, Mark 13:6, Luke 21:8, John 4:26, John 6:20, John 8:24, 28, 58, and John 13:19. There are several others I have not listed. Besides this, Jesus said that He & the Father were one (John 10:30). This describes a unity, even though there are two. (Note, the I AM passages I referred to are from the Greek, as the English translations often mistranslate I AM for "It is I" or "I am He," to allow for readability.)

The Trinity has an underlying appearance in the Old Testament as well. In Genesis, we see during creation that God said, "Let us make man in our image." and also when man sinned, God said, "...man has become as one of us, to know good and evil..." Who was He speaking to? The other persons of the Trinity. We also see that the Spirit of God hovered over the waters in the beginning, and in John 1:1-3, it clearly states that Jesus (the Word) made everything.

Another angle to pursue is the various Scriptures that demonstrate that God's attributes are present in Jesus as well as the Holy Spirit. For example, the Father is eternal (Psalm 90:2), and so is the Son (John 1:2), and so is the Holy Spirit (Hebrews 9:14). Another shared attribute is their holiness. Only God is truly holy. The Father is holy (Revelation 15:4), so is the Son (Acts 3:14), and so is the Spirit (Acts 1:8).

An ancient diagram of the Trinity can be helpful in getting your hands around the doctrine, and can be found at the link in the SOURCE list.

The Trinitarian doctrine requires much more depth of discussion than can occur here. It is important to know that we only have to believe, not necessarily understand, the Trinitarian nature of God. It is a bedrock doctrine of the Christian church.

2006-11-28 13:57:12 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 3 1

WRONG WRONG WRONG!!! Try Reading the Gospel of John. No it does not say the word trinity, that I will agree to, but it does tell how The Father, The Son(the Word) and the Holy Spirit are of one. And the Bible does mention the Godhead, which in more words than less is the......Trinity!

2006-11-28 13:55:13 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 3 3

Yes. The usual "proof" is the "we" and "us" in Genesis, but this is incorrect. That is the "royal we", where "we"/"us" is used by a king (or god) in reference to themself.

1 John 5:7-8: "There are three that testify: the Spirit and the water and the blood, and these three agree." (NRSV), doesn't mention anything about "Father, Son, Holy Spirit".

2006-11-28 13:55:13 · answer #5 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 1 2

Not true. The trinity was there from the beginning. In Genesis God said let us. Where do you get your false information?

2006-11-28 13:54:20 · answer #6 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 5 2

Okay, then tell that to The Father, The Son, and The Holy Ghost......I'd be anxious to hear God's opinion on that one!

2006-11-28 13:55:22 · answer #7 · answered by lookn2cjc 6 · 4 2

1 John 5:7-8
7For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

8And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

Trinity means 3 in one... by any other name is still the same.

2006-11-28 13:54:38 · answer #8 · answered by impossble_dream 6 · 6 3

We cannot find the word Trinity in the Scriptures for it is more of a philosophical attempt to express, as far as it can be, that fundamental divine mystery in human terms. But, the doctrine itself, the teaching itself, is highly Scriptural.

"In Scripture there is as yet no single term by which the Three Divine Persons are denoted together. The word trias (of which the Latin trinitas is a translation) is first found in Theophilus of Antioch about A.D. 180. He speaks of "the Trinity of God [the Father], His Word and His Wisdom ("Ad. Autol.", II, 15). The term may, of course, have been in use before his time. Afterwards it appears in its Latin form of trinitas in Tertullian ("De pud." c. xxi). In the next century the word is in general use. It is found in many passages of Origen ("In Ps. xvii", 15). The first creed in which it appears is that of Origen's pupil, Gregory Thaumaturgus.

It is manifest that a dogma so mysterious presupposes a Divine revelation. When the fact of revelation, understood in its full sense as the speech of God to man, is no longer admitted, the rejection of the doctrine follows as a necessary consequence. For this reason it has no place in the Liberal Protestantism of today. The writers of this school contend that the doctrine of the Trinity, as professed by the Church, is not contained in the New Testament, but that it was first formulated in the second century and received final approbation in the fourth, as the result of the Arian and Macedonian controversies. In view of this assertion it is necessary to consider in some detail the evidence afforded by Holy Scripture. Attempts have been made recently to apply the more extreme theories of comparative religion to the doctrine ot the Trinity, and to account for it by an imaginary law of nature compelling men to group the objects of their worship in threes. It seems needless to give more than a reference to these extravagant views, which serious thinkers of every school reject as destitute of foundation.

Proof of the Dogma from the Sacred Scriptures

New Testament

The evidence from the Gospels culminates in the baptismal commission of Matthew 28:20. It is manifest from the narratives of the Evangelists that Christ only made the great truth known to the Twelve step by step. First He taught them to recognize in Himself the Eternal Son of God. When His ministry was drawing to a close, He promised that the Father would send another Divine Person, the Holy Spirit, in His place. Finally after His resurrection, He revealed the doctrine in explicit terms, bidding them "go and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost" (Matthew 28:18). The force of this passage is decisive. That "the Father" and "the Son" are distinct Persons follows from the terms themselves, which are mutually exclusive. The mention of the Holy Spirit in the same series, the names being connected one with the other by the conjunctions "and . . . and" is evidence that we have here a Third Person co-ordinate with the Father and the Son, and excludes altogether the supposition that the Apostles understood the Holy Spirit not as a distinct Person, but as God viewed in His action on creatures.

The phrase "in the name" (eis to onoma) affirms alike the Godhead of the Persons and their unity of nature. Among the Jews and in the Apostolic Church the Divine name was representative of God. He who had a right to use it was invested with vast authority: for he wielded the supernatural powers of Him whose name he employed. It is incredible that the phrase "in the name" should be here employed, were not all the Persons mentioned equally Divine. Moreover, the use of the singular, "name," and not the plural, shows that these Three Persons are that One Omnipotent God in whom the Apostles believed. Indeed the unity of God is so fundamental a tenet alike of the Hebrew and of the Christian religion, and is affirmed in such countless passages of the Old and New Testaments, that any explanation inconsistent with this doctrine would be altogether inadmissible.

it will be sufficient here to enumerate a few of the more important messages from the Synoptists, in which Christ bears witness to His Divine Nature.

* He declares that He will come to be the judge of all men (Matthew 25:31). In Jewish theology the judgment of the world was a distinctively Divine, and not a Messianic, prerogative.
* In the parable of the wicked husbandmen, He describes Himself as the son of the householder, while the Prophets, one and all, are represented as the servants (Matthew 21:33 sqq.).
* He is the Lord of Angels, who execute His command (Matthew 24:31).
* He approves the confession of Peter when he recognizes Him, not as Messias -- a step long since taken by all the Apostles -- but explicitly as the Son of God: and He declares the knowledge due to a special revelation from the Father (Matthew 16:16-17).
* Finally, before Caiphas He not merely declares Himself to be the Messias, but in reply to a second and distinct question affirms His claim to be the Son of God. He is instantly declared by the high priest to be guilty of blasphemy, an offense which could not have been attached to the claim to be simply the Messias (Luke 22:66-71).

St. John's testimony is yet more explicit than that of the Synoptists. He expressly asserts that the very purpose of his Gospel is to establish the Divinity of Jesus Christ (John 20:31). In the prologue he identifies Him with the Word, the only-begotten of the Father, Who from all eternity exists with God, Who is God (John 1:1-18). The immanence of the Son in the Father and of the Father in the Son is declared in Christ's words to St. Philip: "Do you not believe, that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me?" (14:10), and in other passages no less explicit (14:7; 16:15; 17:21). The oneness of Their power and Their action is affirmed: "Whatever he [the Father] does, the Son also does in like manner" (5:19, cf. 10:38); and to the Son no less than to the Father belongs the Divine attribute of conferring life on whom He will (5:21). In 10:29, Christ expressly teaches His unity of essence with the Father: "That which my Father hath given me, is greater than all . . . I and the Father are one." The words, "That which my Father hath given me," can, having regard to the context, have no other meaning than the Divine Name, possessed in its fullness by the Son as by the Father.

Rationalist critics lay great stress upon the text: "The Father is greater than I" (14:28). They argue that this suffices to establish that the author of the Gospel held subordinationist views, and they expound in this sense certain texts in which the Son declares His dependence on the Father (5:19; 8:28). In point of fact the doctrine of the Incarnation involves that, in regard of His Human Nature, the Son should be less than the Father. No argument against Catholic doctrine can, therefore, be drawn from this text. So too, the passages referring to the dependence of the Son upon the Father do but express what is essential to Trinitarian dogma, namely, that the Father is the supreme source from Whom the Divine Nature and perfections flow to the Son. (On the essential difference between St. John's doctrine as to the Person of Christ and the Logos doctrine of the Alexandrine Philo, to which many Rationalists have attempted to trace it...

The doctrine as to the Holy Spirit is equally clear. That His distinct personality was fully recognized is shown by many passages. Thus He reveals His commands to the Church's ministers: "As they were ministering to the Lord and fasting, the Holy Ghost said to them: Separate me Saul and Barnabas . . ." (Acts 13:2). He directs the missionary journey of the Apostles: "They attempted to go into Bithynia, and the Spirit of Jesus suffered them not" (Acts 16:7; cf. Acts 5:3; 15:28; Romans 15:30). Divine attributes are affirmed of Him.

* He possesses omniscience and reveals to the Church mysteries known only to God (1 Corinthians 2:10);
* it is He who distributes charismata (1 Corinthians 12:11);
* He is the giver of supernatural life (2 Corinthians 3:8);
* He dwells in the Church and in the souls of individual men, as in His temple (Romans 8:9-11; 1 Corinthians 3:16, 6:19).
* The work of justification and sanctification is attributed to Him (1 Corinthians 6:11; Romans 15:16), just as in other passages the same operations are attributed to Christ (1 Corinthians 1:2; Galatians 2:17).

To sum up: the various elements of the Trinitarian doctrine are all expressly taught in the New Testament. The Divinity of the Three Persons is asserted or implied in passages too numerous to count. The unity of essence is not merely postulated by the strict monotheism of men nurtured in the religion of Israel, to whom "subordinate deities" would have been unthinkable; but it is, as we have seen, involved in the baptismal commission of Matthew 28:19, and, in regard to the Father and the Son, expressly asserted in John 10:38. That the Persons are co-eternal and coequal is a mere corollary from this. In regard to the Divine processions, the doctrine of the first procession is contained in the very terms Father and Son: the procession of the Holy Spirit from the Father and Son is taught in the discourse of the Lord reported by St. John (14-17)" ("The Catholic Encyclopedia").

2006-11-28 14:18:08 · answer #9 · answered by Marlowe 2 · 2 0

no, and furthermore, I don't care!

2006-11-28 14:04:41 · answer #10 · answered by answer faerie, V.T., A. M. 6 · 0 2

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