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If Luther had God's Authority simply because he was a Christian (and a Catholic Christian at that), then EVERY Christian also has the authority to change the Canon and/or the words of the Bible.

If Luther did not have the God's Authority, then his changes to the Old Testament Canon (by his rejection of the Deuterocanonical books) was un-authorized and therefore an invalid change.

So did Luther have God's Authority or not? Which is it???


NOTE: I know many will simply use this as another opportunity to attack the Catholic Church and avoid the question. If you HAVE TO spew hatred towards the Catholic Church... at least answer the question.

2006-11-28 12:52:39 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Tony.... please answer the question. Also, your information about Constatine is invalid.

2006-11-28 13:05:13 · update #1

"i thought it was on exhaustive study of text, and language that the canons were changed and then it was blessed by god through prayer?"

Then anybody can do that today... right?

2006-11-28 13:10:49 · update #2

"Also, the Apocryphal books of the OT only really appeared in the Septuagint, therefore becoming canonical only to Greek speaking Alexandrian Jews. The Rabbinic authorities of Palestine rejected them."

First of all, the books in question are not called the apocryphal books... they are called the Deuterocanonical books.

Second, you are correct that these books were in the Septuagint. What is important is that the Septuagint was accepted by Jesus and the Apostles.... and THAT is good enough for me.

2006-11-28 13:24:55 · update #3

To the person who wrote: "the Deuterocanonical books (also called the Apocrypha), were not added by the Catholic Church until 1547, a year after Luther's death."

That is totally false. The Deuterocanonical were in the Septuagint.

The Septuagint was put together BEFORE Jesus was born and before His Church (the Catholic Church) existed.

The canon of the Septuagint is what the Catholic Church uses for the Old Testament Canon.

So how could the Catholic Church add something before She even existed.

Sorry. But your information is false.

2006-11-29 00:45:06 · update #4

11 answers

I suppose he had his own authority since he founded his own church. But I agree, the Deuterocanon should not have been taken out of the Bible. I have pointed out on this site more than once that Protestants would be much better off to read them, regardless of whether they believe in them or not.

2006-11-28 12:57:59 · answer #1 · answered by The Doctor 7 · 2 0

Hi CatholicChristian, the Deuterocanonical books (also called the Apocrypha), were not added by the Catholic Church until 1547, a year after Luther's death. Most Protestants, and many Catholics, knew the Apocrypha was not part of the Holy Canon. These books were not a part of the Bible for over 1500 years and until the Catholic church decided to include them in 1547. Luther knew they were not part of the Holy Canon and he was a Catholic monk.

The major problem with the Apocrypha is the earliest versions were in Greek. When God gave scripture it was always in Hebrew. Protestants and many Catholics knew the books could not be part of the Holy Canon.

But that was not the Catholic church's only apostate belief. It was during the time of Luther that the Catholic church sold indulgences. Indulgences were sold by the Catholic church to gain dead person's salvation. There is no scriptural basis for this practice, it was just something done by the Church to raise money. Luther was among those who protested this practice, hence the name Protestant.

Edit-

No, the fact is the Catholic Council of Trent did not add the Deuterocanonical books to the Catholic Bible untill 1547. The Septuagint is the Greek version of the Old Testament. They were not part of the Hebrew Bible.

The Deuterocanonical books, also known as the Apocrypha, were written from about 400 BC and continued until the New Testament times. Any reference Christ makes that is the Apocrypha can also be found in the Hebrew Old Testament.

The fifth-century biblical scholar Jerome (known to Catholics as St. Jerome) stated the Septuagint should not be part of the Holy Canon because it was not written in Hebrew. Jerome knew that God only sent scripture in Hebrew, not Greek.

A few centuries later, the church strayed from Jerome's teachings and began using the Greek Old Testament as part of their Bible. It wasn't until 1547 during the Protestant protests that the Council of Trent tried to quash the Protestants disagrement by offically adding the Apocrapha to their Bible.

These facts are history, look it up on Wikipedia if you want.

2006-11-28 13:39:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

I'm not sure that Luther discarded them as he is accused of doing. In dialogue with a Catholic student during my own theological study I was told that may Catholic scholars view the Apocrypha as of 'lesser inspiration.' If this be true, then to remove them would be akin to taking out the Greek titles, chapter and verse numbers. Important, but not inspired. Also, the Apocryphal books of the OT only really appeared in the Septuagint, therefore becoming canonical only to Greek speaking Alexandrian Jews. The Rabbinic authorities of Palestine rejected them. Admittedly, they were read by many Gentile Christians during the first four centuries, but, as with Luther, a return to true Judeo-Christian theology would objectively reject them. I will never hail Luther or any of the Reformers as divinely inspired, in that they had many shortcomings (usually in uniting the church and state, which was the problem God had perhaps called them to oppose), but in this area of the Apocrypha, it is not about Luther, it is about getting back to the truth.

2006-11-28 13:11:34 · answer #3 · answered by Josiah7 1 · 2 1

The same Authority Constantine had. Which is why there is no 2Romans, because they threw it out in 300AD.

Luther sure didn't change it as much as the NIV or the Living Bible.

Next, understand you wouldn't KNOW the difference if it weren't for Luther, because PRIOR to his German Translation only Scholars and Royalty and Clergy could read the Catholic Bible and they read it in Latin. Do you read LAtin fludily!

Luther's Bible Translation provoked the Catholic Church to issue a German Translation of their own Bible.

How come the Catholic Bible doesn't have some of the MAterial from the Dead Sea Scrolls, which are authentic parts of the Jewish Torah. How come they don't match every part of those scroll fragments.

Is it because they used Greek translations of the Hebrew Tanakah.

Do you know how many protestants object to how close the King James Bibles is to the Catholic Bible, they think we should purge out some of the more "Catholic" items.

2006-11-28 13:02:18 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Luther didnt have the Authority to change it, Im not sure what reasons he wanted to remove some books but I have a Catholic Bible too... those books change nothing .. there are no special doctrines in them that would make or break anyones faith so to me its not a big deal. If God wasnt pleased with the change then Luther will (or has) reap the punishment.

2006-11-28 12:57:58 · answer #5 · answered by impossble_dream 6 · 0 0

If the Deuterocanonical books were not added until 1547,and they wern't by what authority did the Catholic church add them? Other than the Pope said it was OK.

2006-11-28 13:48:58 · answer #6 · answered by sam 1 · 0 1

Why don’t you question Luther? He replaced into in basic terms a guy and he isn't all terrific which you will see on his followers which left him and made their own church homes. that's a solid rationalization why you may still question his authority on history and teachings regarding the bible and faith on my own. The Catholic Church has the fullness of the real and he or she has the biggest to unbind what's in the international and in heaven. God all understanding and is accustomed to the hearts of guy he construct a church what that guy does no longer get misplaced. so as that guy would be responsive to his finished like to the fullness and ward off getting misplaced by making use of the devil deceptions by making use of asserting to apply that we are all greater understanding then God and we are able to lead our self’s to the terrific paths. The e book of Romans is what Luther wanted to maintain in the bible misread for his own earnings and ignoring the entire New testomony in count of religion. The Holy Catholic Church continually believes that we are keep by making use of grace. no longer by making use of works, verify out the “Fathers of the desolate tract” and “the daddy of the Church” which will declare that we are keep by making use of grace which the church continually professed.

2016-12-13 16:23:20 · answer #7 · answered by shearin 4 · 0 0

By what authority did Constantine emperor of Rome personally
pick and choose the books to be allowed in the Bible and
even select the order in which they would appear.

2006-11-28 13:00:04 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

i wish i knew the answer, very interesting though!...i thought it was on exhaustive study of text, and language that the canons were changed and then it was blessed by god through prayer?...does the changed text seem wrong to you? what does your heart tell you?

2006-11-28 12:57:01 · answer #9 · answered by Billionaire 2 · 0 1

I didn't know that he did that. However, I know that HE read it and discovered that Salvation was about Grace not works. That they could not change somebody being in purgatory and that nowhere in the Bible does it say it must be read and taught in a language the people do not know.

2006-11-28 12:56:18 · answer #10 · answered by Abbasangel 5 · 1 2

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