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11 answers

Good question, my answer is because Israel occupied Palestinian lands by force with the assistance of the super powers (England, France & U.S) and since these super powers do not want to embarrass themselves, they support the Israeli terrorists and claim they are defending their right to exist!!

No wonder the U.S has to use its veto every few weeks to prevent any action by the security council against Israel.

2006-11-28 10:56:35 · answer #1 · answered by fozio 6 · 0 1

While I have to admit that I get disgusted with Israel at times becauase it seems like they can do anything they want, despite UN sanctions, I have to say that your comparison is way off-base. In South Africa you had one tiny, small, group of people--mostly Dutch--who conquered the southern tip of the African continent thousands of years after the indigent population had been there. This was a conquest and an oppression.
In Israel you have a disputed land, where both parties can lay valid claims to the same land that go back thousands of years. What most people over here don't know is that the Palestinians once had three times the labnd they did now, even after the UN granted Israel sovereignty in 1948. But the Pals kept starting wars, and erverytime the lost the war they lost a little more land too! It's truly ironic that Palestine will never have the land they had at the very beginning of the conflict, despite all their bloodshed and warring.

2006-11-28 11:00:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Because South African apartheid was done to supress the rights of a group. Israeli apartheid is being done as a defense against Pseudo Islamo Fascists who seek to destroy Israel.

2006-11-28 10:52:01 · answer #3 · answered by yagman 7 · 0 2

It's all about how it's portrayed in the media. The media made the South African Whites out to be like "nazis" and the Israeli Jews as "victims". It's a double-standard. That's why Jews constantly bring up the Holocaust, so the world will see them as the "eternal victim" that can do no wrong....

2006-11-28 10:54:36 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

There is no difference. Most people are so dumbed down, from Fox Hole News, they don't even know what apartheid is, let alone have an opinion on it.

2006-11-28 10:58:37 · answer #5 · answered by flip4449 5 · 1 0

because of the fact "Israeli Apartheid" is as imaginary because of the fact the Easter bunny. there in basic terms isn't any such factor. in case you probably did no longer be responsive to, Israeli is a Democracy, lots comparable and such as teh western international. no longer in basic terms like the theocratic dictatorships that run a great style of the arab international.

2016-12-13 16:19:28 · answer #6 · answered by shearin 4 · 0 0

Never heard of Israeli apartheid.

2006-11-28 10:50:47 · answer #7 · answered by Maus 7 · 0 3

There are Arabs in Israel that have full citizenship and all the rights of any Israeli citizen.

2006-11-28 10:50:48 · answer #8 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 1 3

none is good no matter who does it.

2006-11-28 10:58:03 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

what difference does it make?

2006-11-28 10:50:50 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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