If "Speaking in Tongues" is still a gift of the Holy Spirit today, why ...?

Question

Why is there absolutely no record in church history from the First Century until the 19th Century of anyone speaking in tongues?

No early church fathers or other Christian writers record anything about speaking in tongues for over 1700 years. Certainly if this was a common practice, something would have been written about it.

Is it reasonable to think that the Holy Spirit ceased to give this gift for 1700 years and then in the 1800's, during the Pentecostal Movement, He suddenly began to give this gift ubiquitously again?

Answer 1

The act of 'speaking in tongues' was a gift given to the first century apostles to aid in the conversion of non-christians.

At that time the people shared a common language but they also knew the language of their own family or tribes. Because of this there were many different languages that were spoken and it was very unusual for a person to know a particular language unless he was from that area.

The act of 'speaking in tongues' was merely an apostle speaking fluently in a different and unfamiliar language and then another would translate his words. This would prove to the listeners that these people had been given special powers and had God's approval.

Today this act has turned into mass confusion. If everyone in the church speaks the same language, is there any need to 'speak in tongues'? If there were, who would know another language so that they could translate? If this is done in a church of believers, who is attempting to be converted? There is no more need to perform this act since communication is no longer a factor in most places, what would be the significance? Most people that 'speak in tongues' today speak in an unknown tongue, this is contrary to the experience in the scriptures.

The author of the bible is said not be an author of confusion, the gifts were supposed to be done in an orderly fassion. Every instance of someone being 'filled with the holy spirit' in the bible remained calm and well spoken and coherent, but today when someone is said to be 'filled with the holy spirt' they are usually spastic and out of control and usually don't remember anything that happened afterward. This more closely resembles those who were described in the bible to be possessed by demons.

The sciptures claimed that there were many gifts that were given to early christians to aid them. It aslo stated that when the scriptures were completed, the bible would be their aid and there would no longer be the need for the other helper . . . these gifts. The bible also warns of demons who would perform many powerful works and sins in the name of Jesus just to mislead many.

Answer 2

You are so well I wanted to be rude here but you are wrong. At the beginning of most if not all denominations today there was an outbreak of speaking in tongues. Methodests would be one then there were quackers Shakers, Jansonists and many more. You have been listening to someone in error and teaching lies or you yourself just made this up. Either way you need a change. I do not speak in tongues, but have had a spouse who did. Some are speaking some are not and it has been so from the beginning. Those who do speak have a similar problem to yours they think if u don't u r not saved well at least even though wrong are not running the risk of Blastpheming the Holy Spirit which is something you better think over. Here are a few more, being in one accord is an undisputable doctrine which you have just totally disregared. then find this scripture

Where does Paul pose retorical questions regarding the gifts

also who was the Apostle to the Gentile and who spoke in tongues more than any others

for what some of the gifts that are available today check out Romans 12 starting at 1 are available

you really sound like an immature brat, shame on you

Answer 3

If indeed there are no records in the early Church writings of "Speaking in tongues", then it is perhaps reasonable to assume that it may not have been a common place practice.

However, it is important to note that the early Church did not emphasise the fundamental role of the Holy Spirit and the Believers in ministry. Ministry activities were left almost entirely to the Church leaders- preists and the like. The laity were more of spectators as they were mainly required to bring their offertory.

I don't think the Holy Spirit would have withheld the gift of speaking in tongues to those who asked for it. God is not a respector of persons. It is only that there has just recently (from the 1800's) been a revival of the significant role the Holy Spirit plays in a Christian's life. The laity are now more involved in ministry- ministry inspired by the Holy Spirit- hence a revival in speaking in tongues.

Answer 4

The gift of tongues as described in the Bible, is not the same as the silly gibberish that passes for "tongues" today. In the Bible Paul indicates that tongues is the least of the gifts, anyway, and unless there is an interpreter, it is useless and there is no edification. The first mention of tongues in the Bible is when the leaders from many different nations were gathered together, each spoke his own language, and each man understood in his own "tongue", or native language. That's not the stuff that goes on today, so no...I don't believe that the "gift of tongues" really exists today as it did back then.

Answer 5

I was once a Pentecostal Holiness and now I see another new age Atheist who has got his facts wrong trying to confuse good Christin's. The first people who spoke in the unknown tongue was recorded in the Holy Bible During Paul's ministry. People have been speaking in tongues ever since so just set down and shut up better still just die. God bless kisses Betty.

P.S. You didn't have to write an entire bible for this fool dear Eve loves J but that was very good.

Answer 6

speaking in tongues as the name implies is speaking in an unknown tongue. if you read acts chapter 2 the apostles spoke in tongues os in verse 7:
7Utterly amazed, they asked: "Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans? 8Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language? 9Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome 11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs-we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!" 12Amazed and perplexed, they asked one another, "What does this mean?"

13Some, however, made fun of them and said, "They have had too much wine.

i dont think the Holy Spirit ceased to give the gift but some people are not ready or hesitant about this.
click the link below to read more:

Answer 7

They need to have a search option on Yahoo Answers!
I have see this question before!
Anyway, you will see a reference work below, but in short the Bible even says (via Paul) that the tongues would cease.


Speaking in Tongues

Definition: A special ability given through the holy spirit to some disciples in the early Christian congregation that enabled them to preach or otherwise glorify God in a language other than their own.

Does the Bible say that all who would have God’s spirit would “speak in tongues”?

1 Cor. 12:13, 30: “Truly by one spirit we were all baptized into one body . . . Not all have gifts of healings, do they? Not all speak in tongues, do they?” (Also 1 Corinthians 14:26)

1 Cor. 14:5: “Now I would like for all of you to speak in tongues, but I prefer that you prophesy. Indeed, he that prophesies is greater than he that speaks in tongues, unless, in fact, he translates, that the congregation may receive upbuilding.”

Does ecstatic speech in a language that a person never learned prove that he has holy spirit?

Can the ability to “speak in tongues” come from a source other than the true God?

1 John 4:1: “Beloved ones, do not believe every inspired expression [“every spirit,” KJ, RS], but test the inspired expressions to see whether they originate with God.” (See also Matthew 7:21-23; 2 Corinthians 11:14, 15.)

Among those ‘speaking in tongues’ today are Pentecostals and Baptists, also Roman Catholics, Episcopalians, Methodists, Lutherans, and Presbyterians. Jesus said that the holy spirit would ‘guide his disciples into all the truth.’ (John 16:13) Do the members of each of these religions believe that the others who also “speak in tongues” have been guided into “all the truth”? How could that be, since they are not all in agreement? What spirit is making it possible for them to “speak in tongues”?

A joint statement by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council admitted: “We are also aware that a similar phenomenon can occur under occult/demonic influence.” (Gospel and Spirit, April 1977, published by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council, p. 12)

The book Religious Movements in Contemporary America (edited by Irving I. Zaretsky and Mark P. Leone, quoting L. P. Gerlach) reports that in Haiti ‘speaking in tongues’ is characteristic of both Pentecostal and Voodoo religions.—(Princeton, N.J.; 1974), p. 693; see also 2 Thessalonians 2:9, 10.

Is the ‘speaking in tongues’ that is done today the same as that done by first-century Christians?

In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to “speak in tongues,” verified that God’s favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?

In the first century, the ability to “speak in tongues” gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8; 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19) Is that how those who “speak in tongues” use that ability today?

In the first century, when Christians ‘spoke in tongues,’ what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages. (Acts 2:4, 8) Today, is it not true that ‘speaking in tongues’ usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?

In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the ‘speaking in tongues’ to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it “each in turn,” and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1 Cor. 14:27, 28, RS) Is that what is being done today?

Answer 8

In ALL of the cases in the Bible, it was used for people of different languages to understand each other. It was never just done for no reason.

I believe that anyone doing this in this day and age is just show-boating to appear more holy, or as a person who is being used by God.

I can't think of a reason that anyone would need this ability now.

Answer 9

just because it's not recorded doesn't mean it wasnt going on. plus the true gift of speaking in tongues is extremely rare. there are mentions of speaking in tongues in the Bible. and how can you have possibly gone through every church history document known to man to figure out that there are no records?

Answer 10

As we move through the ages, what may have appeared to be supernatural intervention - ie. "speaking in tongues", has become widely recognized as quite a serious mental illness. Anyone found to be "speaking in tongues" (non-sensical gibberish) should be referred to the nearest psychiatric unit without delay.