Because religion is a corrupt empire. Are we entirely sure that they werent changed by others as they years went by? History tends to be painted in a somewhat favorable light in order to keep weak minds controlled.
2006-11-25 14:29:17
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answer #1
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answered by Your #1 fan 6
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Hey there Sherlock Holmes.
I am a retired Federal Investigator.
The fact that they gave distinctly different, or somewhat different accounts of Jesus ..... adds credence to their validity. It does not distract from their credibility.
If they had all told the exact same things about Jesus' life the odds would be in the millions that they conspired or lied about their report of events.
Ok, OK, so you wanted to say that you don't trust a Christian writing about Christ Jesus.
Well, at the time of Jesus there was another religion, a very strict religion. It was called "History" or the league of Historians. Several of these non christian historians wrote about Jesus and they basically agreed with what is now in the new testament. One such famous non-Christian Historian was Josephus. Do an internet search on him, and you may be enlightened.
2006-11-25 22:35:35
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answer #2
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answered by MrsOcultyThomas 6
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Some one up above me had it correct when they stated that each had their own perception of the event.
John was there, so his account of jesus' last words were probably most accurate.
YOu also have to take into account the language (not Hebrew in it's original state but rather Aramaic) and the multiple translations slash omissions simply because of english actually. For example did you know that orignally the word "man" is strictly used for our race, not to denote sex. Rather the correct early germanic english translations denoted woman (female) and werman (male). This is particularly important for Genesis translations/misconceptions.
Jesus' last words/actions were also phrophesized. Qu'ran man- your book is not perfect by the way, it is the most flawed "religious" writings. No other religion has as many warring factions within it. And why do they quarrel so much you ask (ex- Sunni's vs. Shiites?) Because there are inadequecies within the text of the qu'ran and the open nature of it's conclusions.
But most of all we all see things differntly in any given situation. The basic jist of what he said on the cross is evident across all three translations.
2006-11-25 22:31:07
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answer #3
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answered by spilk22 2
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Have you ever read two biographies about the same famous person? If so, have you noticed that these biographies will differ without being necessarily contradictory? Often, it is because of the writer’s personal impressions or the sources he has used. It also depends on what the author feels is important to relate in his presentation, the angle he is developing, and having the audience in mind for whom the work is intended. Thus, accounts written with Gentile readers in mind would differ from those for Jewish readers, who already understood and accepted certain facts.
These are just a few examples of passages in the Bible that, without careful analysis, appear to contradict one another. But when carefully examined, keeping in mind the writer’s viewpoint and the context, they are not contradictions at all but simply passages that require additional research. Most people fail to put forth this necessary effort, however, finding it so much easier just to say: “The Bible contradicts itself.
2006-11-25 22:37:45
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answer #4
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answered by papavero 6
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Because the four gospels were not written as news accounts of what happened -- they were written to 'proclaim the good news.' Moreover, since at least several decades passed before the gospels were composed in the form in which we have them, scholars have conjectured that there were various oral and written traditions circulating upon which the writers drew. And they didn't all draw on the same traditions. It should be noted as well that the gospel writers do not say, 'These were the last words Jesus spoke before he died.' They each present certain words last in their accounts, but that has more to do with their literary and theological purposes than with any claims about what Jesus' literal last words were.
2006-11-25 22:27:29
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Which "last words"? The "last words" on the Cross? Or the "last words" before his Ascension?
Four writers, are not they all conveying the same message?
Do you think they were all dictaphones, recording exact words? Or where they each providing a precis of what He said. Probably He spoke many more words than are recorded.
And probably He spoke originally in Hebrew of Aramaic. Each have recorded a translation of what He said.
2006-11-25 22:33:18
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answer #6
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answered by kent chatham 5
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Because these books were wrote long (greater than 50 years) after he died. Who could remember what he said exactly unless they were there and wrote it down. These stories were like most stories, they changed through word of mouth. Plus, it is intentionally contradictory to make truth seekers look deeper for meaning. The same reason Joseph's (jesus step father) geneology was given to show the blood line of Jesus. Now that makes sense.
2006-11-25 22:26:40
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answer #7
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answered by Sand 2
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They were of different professions. The lawyer does not use the same jargon as the doctor, etc. They wrote it how they heard it in their own words. It's not like they had a tape recorder there and played it back while writing it down.
2006-11-25 22:25:43
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answer #8
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answered by Pamela 5
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Just as any 4 people might recall different things about a certain situation or conversation. Everything God thought to be important was recorded by at least one of them.
2006-11-25 22:36:40
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answer #9
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answered by Sparkle1 6
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Simple. They each record several if the many statements that he made over the hours that he hung on the cross. Each records correctly statements that he made. They just do not all record every statement that he made, or each statement in its entirety. In fact, in his gospel, John specifically states that there were many other things Jesus did and said that were not recorded by them.
2006-11-25 22:25:50
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answer #10
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answered by dewcoons 7
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