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My guide to Judaism lists anywhere from 1-6 hours between eating meat and eating something with dairy, I'm wondering if there is a set time limit or if it's up to the local synagogue/congregation. Also, does chocolate count as a dairy product under Jewish law?

2006-11-25 07:36:24 · 4 answers · asked by concannonwhpc 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

4 answers

Yes, it is by the particular tradition you are following and varies by community.

Not all chocolate is dairy, look at the kosher symbol on the package, it is only Dairy if the kosher symbol has a "D" or "Dairy" next to it. Otherwise it is Pareve and may be eaten at any time.

As you study further you will find that the wait time is not as long after liquid dairy like milk and hard dairy like a hard cheese.

2006-11-26 14:37:12 · answer #1 · answered by Daniel 6 · 0 0

The 1- 6 hour time wait is by communal custom. 1 hour is fairly uncommon, the most common waits are 3 or 6 hours.

Chocolate may contain dairy (called milk chocolate) thus one would have to wait.

Keep in mind it is some time after eating meat but not the other way around.

2006-11-25 10:27:40 · answer #2 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0 0

in historic talmudic regulation you could desire to consume meat after milk in case you waited a cursory volume of time and rinsed out yourmoth inspite of the undeniable fact that this became provided which you ate milk products that have been no longer seen "annoying cheeses" -- a definite approach of ageing cheese. in case you ate annoying cheese, you had to attend an prolonged era -- equivalent to the wait after meat till now dairy. in recent times, i'm unsure that any of our cheeses is seen a "annoying cheese."

2016-10-17 13:02:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

chocolate has dairy/milk in it does it not? so why would it not be counted?

2006-11-25 07:40:20 · answer #4 · answered by ramall1to 5 · 0 0

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