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if practiced the way people did at the time the Bible was written - I know, for a fact, that the ancient Greeks at Symposiums would have sex with other men for pure pleasure, while their wives were at home. Romans may well have been the same in this, and other ancient societies.

Love, however, is totally different. A loving monogamous relationship between two men or two women should not be any worse, surely, even if you believe the Bible, than an adulterous straight couple?

2006-11-25 06:02:06 · 23 answers · asked by lady_s_hazy 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

I have to add that this sounds sorta as if I find it a sin sometimes. To me, it is not a sin, it is no worse than being heterosexual, it's just different.

2006-11-25 06:04:49 · update #1

Exactly! 'lust toward one another' - NOT love. Nowhere in the Bible does it say anything about homosexual LOVE being wrong. I understand that lust is a part of love, but to me, what the Bible is condemning is not homosexual relationships but homosexuals sleeping around.

2006-11-25 06:07:17 · update #2

I'm not a Christian, so to all those who are trying to tell me God will hunt down those who practice homosexuality, I do not believe you. I'm not a homosexual either. But I don't think the Bible is fair at all over this issue.

2006-11-25 06:22:01 · update #3

23 answers

You're getting it.

Biblical scholars have employed the social sciences to study the relational and gender patterns of the ancient Mediterranean world—the world that produced the Bible. Professor Mary Tolbert summarizes that research with the following words:

The single most important concept that defines sexuality in the ancient Mediterranean world, whether we are talking about the kingdoms of Egyptor of Assyriaor whether we are talking about the later kingdoms of Greeceand Rome, is that approved sexual acts never occurred between social equals. Sexuality, by definition, in ancient Mediterranean societies required the combination of dominance and submission. This crucial social and political root metaphor of dominance and submission as the definition of sexuality rested upon a physical basis that assumed every sex act required a penetrator and someone who was penetrated. Needless to say, this definition of sexuality was entirely male—not surprising in the heavily patriarchal societies of the Mediterranean.

In these societies sexual acts between men did happen, but they happened in order to show dominance of one group of men or a man over another, especially during times of war. It was not uncommon for men who had conquered a foreign army to rape them in order to show they were dominant and of a higher status.

The verses in Leviticus are part of the Holiness Code in the Old Testament book of Leviticus (chapters 17-26) that attempted to spell out ways the people of Israel would act differently than their Mediterranean neighbors. In light of the previously mentioned sexual practices of Israel’s neighbors, it becomes clear that this prohibition in Leviticus was an attempt to preserve the internal harmony of Jewish male society by not allowing them to participate in anal intercourse as a form of expressing or gaining social and political dominance. These verses in no way prohibit, nor do they even speak, to loving, caring sexual relationships between people of the same gender.

2006-11-25 06:03:13 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3 5

Human love is not a reliable barometer by which to measure what is acceptable to God. Just because two humans love each other does not mean their relationship is acceptable to God. A married man might be genuinely in love with a woman other than his wife. If they carry on a relationship, is that acceptable to God?

Many use the scriptures and this encourages me to believe that they recognize our need for the guidance that God’s Word provides, and no doubt, that is why they have a Bible, is that not so? At Matthew 19:9, the Bible provides very serious guidance in the words of Christ Jesus. There he teaches that the only grounds for divorce with a view to remarriage is fornication. Here he uses the Greek word porneia to describe the illicit, immoral sexual relations practiced by an adulterer.

If we now turn our attention to Jude 7, we find God’s explanation for destroying the inhabitants of Sodom and Gomorrah – their practice of fornication. Jude uses the same Greek word, porneia, employed by Jesus.

Moreover, at Ephesians 5:5 we are plainly told that no fornicator has any inheritance in the kingdom of the Christ. Again, the Greek word porneia.

Some cite to 1 Corinthians chapter 6. At verses 9, 13 and 18, the same Greek word, or variations thereon, appears: porneia. As we see above, this same word is used to describe that which will keep us from the kingdom of God, that which is not for the body, and that from which we ought to flee. God punishes those who refuse to live by his standards, that is true. But God rewards those who faithfully serve him. Yet it is he who determines what is acceptable and what is not. And fornication, whatever form it may take, is not acceptable.

Hannah

2006-11-25 06:09:36 · answer #2 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 2 0

adultery too is a sin and should not be done! i don't believe it has to do with loving monogamous relationships at all. the point is you should not have sexual relations 1) outside of marriage 2) between same sex individuals. God created Adam and Eve not Adam and Steve as they say! It is not God's will that we engage in such activities. it is because of sin that people have these urges. not that those urges are any worse than any other sin because they are not. someone who steals is in just as bad a condition as someone who practices homosexuality. it is all sin to God. Maybe you need to cry out to God and ask for deliverance, because only God and change the inner man.

2006-11-25 06:06:59 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

SEXUAL IMMORALITY is ANY sexual relations that is out of the realm of what God intended. God made Adam and Eve, not Adam and Steve or Eve and whoever. We try to read too much into the Word of God in order to try to justify our mess. God is the same yesterday, today and forever more. It was wrong in Sodom and Gommorah, it was wrong in Rome, in Corinth, in New York, Mississippi, any where. It is wrong. It you try to justify anything long enough we can find a way to rationalize what we want to. But the Word of God remains the same. You are correct, homosexuality, adultery, fornication, etc are all sins. There is no sin that is bigger or smaller than any other. When we know better we need to try to act better. To him that does not know it is sin and to him that does know it is sin. But the one who does know will be whipped with many more stripes than the one who does not know. That is why we should study the Bible so that we may know what is the acceptable Will of God. May God Bless

2006-11-25 06:15:08 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

Aren't you tired of this?

By your reasoning, adultery would not be sin, if pracitised outside of lust? How twisted can your logic be!!

The Bible lists both adultery and homosexuality as sins. Why are you trying to find a loophole?

It is impossible to use the Bible to justify either adultery or homosexuality. I wonder how soon someone would try to use the Bible to justify euthanasia.

2006-11-25 06:18:31 · answer #5 · answered by flandargo 5 · 0 0

Plain and Simple:

God created the man and the woman
together they can have children because of the way God designed it

Now if Homsexuality was not sin and ok by God, then since Gods commands for the family are to be fruitful and multiply the earth,
why would God condone Homosexuality when it produces nothing(zero) dead fruit?

All things created by God has the ability to be fruitful-
Homosexulaity is a dead end and only Satan himself produces dead ends (death)
Sexual love between two men or two women is dead love-

Why would God condone something Dead when he gives Life?

2006-11-25 06:13:12 · answer #6 · answered by Utopia 4 · 2 0

didn't mankind learn anything from Sodom and Gomorrah?
homosexuality no matter it's basis, cause or grounds.
it is a sin.
1 Corinthians 6:9,10.
no excuses,
god says it's a sin and that's good enough 4 me.

lots of people see the bible as unfair u r not alone, unfortunately that won't change what it says, will it?
but the parts that imply 4forgiveness and self-control r not always as well know, but they r there.

2006-11-25 06:08:03 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 2 0

If there's a god, which i don't believe that there is, and homosexuality is in certainty a sin, then a brilliant style of the classic Greeks and Romans are burning in hell. it continuously amazes me that human beings choose others to end doing a undeniable habit or interest while it would not result their lives. maximum people who're so against homosexuals are men which at the instant are not gentle of their very own sexuality. those comparable men have a not undemanding time with the thought yet another guy would be questioning approximately them as they themselves think of roughly women. in case you particularly study the bible, you will discover many insane and hypocritical statements. this is because of the fact it substitute into written with the aid of fellows who had their very own biases and subjective understandings. right here's a favorite Bible passage of mine that exhibits why it is going to not be study as honest or study at excited approximately that count: "while a guy strikes his male or woman slave with a rod so not undemanding that the slave dies below his hand, he would be punished. If, whether, the slave survives for an afternoon or 2, he's to not be punished, because of the fact the slave is his very own property." (Exodus 21:20-21 NAB) So, bypass forward and very own slaves and be at liberty to triumph over the **** out of them with metallic rods, in basic terms be sure that they don't die for 2 days or you will bypass to hell. How outstanding.... and tolerant.

2016-10-13 02:22:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fornication is a sin too though,a loving monogamous unmarried relationship between a man and a woman is a sin. homosexuality is still a sin, still as perverted, when will people get it?

2006-11-25 06:19:00 · answer #9 · answered by Nikki 5 · 1 0

Here's God's opinion on it:

"For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who withhold the truth in unrighteousness.... because when they knew God they glorified Him not as God,.... Professing themselves to wise, they became fools, ..... Wherefore God gave them up to uncleaness...to dishonor their bodies among themselves...Who exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worship and served the creature more than the Creator... FOR THIS CAUSE God gave them up to vile affections....and likewise the men also, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust toward one another, men with men,... receiving in themselves THE JUST RECOMPENSE FOR THEIR ERROR,... God gave then over to a reprobate mind,.... filled with all unrighteousness, ...full of envy, murder, deceit,....haters of God,...proud,...without understanding,...who, KNOWING THE JUDGMENT OF GOD, that they which commit such things ARE WORTHY OF (ETERNAL) DEATH..." (Romans 1: 18-32)

2006-11-25 06:04:27 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

it is not a sin it is a choice a way of life people are free to choose their own lifestyle.

2006-11-25 06:07:55 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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