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1 On the third day there was a wedding in Cana of Galilee, and the mother of Jesus was there. 2 Now both Jesus and His disciples were invited to the wedding. 3 And when they ran out of wine, the mother of Jesus said to Him, “They have no wine.”
4 Jesus said to her, “Woman, what does your concern have to do with Me? My hour has not yet come.”

I give an example.

"Son can you give me 10 bucks, i need to buy some fish to cook." I replied, "Women, your problem doesn't concern me."

Why did Jesus replied that way to his own mother? Is that how we should treat our mother?

2006-11-25 04:33:08 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

These from book of John 2:1-4

2006-11-25 04:35:13 · update #1

23 answers

according to thebible Jesus broke the fifth commandment.

he addressed his woman using the word "woman" which i don't believe and up till now i haven't heard one single proper explanation.
all i hear "you see", "it's probably" bla bla bla. i need a firm answer a firm explanation NOT assumptions.

2006-11-25 05:04:26 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

They have come to Cana to attend a wedding feast. Mary is there too. The wine runs short. She suggests that Jesus do something. Jesus answers: “What have I to do with you, woman? My hour has not yet come.” John 2:1-4.

Jesus’ reply, “What have I to do with you, woman?” is an ancient form of question that indicates an objection to what is suggested or proposed. Why does Jesus object to Mary’s words? Well, he is now 30 years of age. Just a few weeks earlier, he was baptized, anointed with holy spirit, and introduced by John the Baptizer as “the Lamb of God that takes away the sin of the world.” Now his direction comes from the Supreme God who sent him and not his mother. (1 Corinthians 11:3)

Apparently Mary got the point because she immediately steps aside and instructs the attendants: “Whatever he tells you, do.” And Jesus did – he turns the water into the finest of wine.

When Jesus used that expression he was already the Christ and God’s King-designate. He was not a young child living in his mother’s house and under her immediate supervision. As to Jesus calling her “woman,” note what one publication said: “In the Greek any abruptness in the question was softened, not heightened, by the use of the word [woman] with it, as a term of affection or respect.” We should not measure his use of the term woman by today’s standards. Mary did not take umbrage. Neither should we.

Hannah

2006-11-25 13:00:34 · answer #2 · answered by Hannah J Paul 7 · 2 1

Reading a scripture and taking the literal meaning has led to the downfall of many.

This certainly is not the way to behave to your mother.

The answer of Lord Jesus could have even meant that the worry about the lack of wine was not of paramount importance.

Lord Jesus was a guest there
(2 says 'they were invited').
They were not hosting the wedding.
It was not [his] duty to do something about the lack of wine.
The wedding party 'ran out of wine', perhaps by over consumption. Lord Jesus may have thought that enough wine had been had by all.

When Lord Jesus said "My hour has not yet come” it may have meant that this was hardly a reason for performing a miracle.

The above are just my thoughts, I may be incorrect.

The example you give is too simplistic and out of context.

2006-11-25 13:16:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

translation:

"woman... " likely a terminology of the day, to all females, including mothers, not an insult!

Christ's remark was telling her that His time to begin his mission here on earth, was not yet here... but, Mary very likely felt it had arrived.

We already know she had revelations from God... that an angel was the messenger... and to be chosen to bear His son, must surely means God was a hands on Father... and he also spoke to Joseph through a dream, these were the revelations that kept Jesus safe to grow up.

Mary very likely had them all through Jesus' growing years as well. And it's very likely that the human side of Christ, had made Him uncertain of using His powers, or, uncertain of when to begin using them.

Mothers are chosen by God to birth, raise, nurtur, guide and advise children... and surprisingly, the Father was involved... so why wouldn't He discuss these things with the mother of His child... and advice Her to advice their son?

Just because Mary never spoke or wrote about it, doesn't mean God didn't talk with her!

'and Mary kept these things in her heart....' in the temple when he was twelve for example! Who did she tell that to, so they could chronicle it? And what didn't she tell?

Perhaps initially Jesus thought His first public miracle would be best used in a more serious way, than merely making wine... until his mother helped Him to lighten up, it was a special party after all;-)

Keep nit picking friend... I'll keep answering:-)

2006-11-25 12:58:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2 2

He's reminding her that His time to perform miracles has not yet come. Keep reading and you'll see He obeys what she's asked Him to do anyway. That was His first miracle!

The example you give is terrible.

How important is to have run out of wine when it's not even your wedding party? That was not her problem nor His.

2006-11-25 12:53:40 · answer #5 · answered by LoveJesus 2 · 2 1

What great answers you have received. Particularly from HannahJPa.

How can you continue to try to discredit Christ when you have been given such clear and compelling testimony to His purity and Divinity ?

He was beautifully and graciously reminding her, and us, of the reason the Father sent Him, culminating in His sacrificial death for our sins upon the cross.

This was His main purpose, and miracles for the benefit of this earthly life were subservient to this end.

Take care that you do not wrest the Scriptures to your own destruction.

2006-11-26 12:35:38 · answer #6 · answered by Iain C 3 · 0 0

you really missed it.
She required Jesus to perform a miracle. She had no right to expect this of Him. The wedding host should have supplied the wine. Mary attempted to "use" God for her own purpose. This was wrong. However Jesus did as she ask.
His reply was " Dear woman, why do you involve me"? This is not disrespectful. What is your problem with it.

2006-11-25 12:46:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 3

She likely had to nag him a lot to get him to take the trash out too. It seems that most sons get like this when they are at that "I think I am a God" age. But he did eventually fix the wine problem for her.

2006-11-25 12:43:43 · answer #8 · answered by Barabas 5 · 2 1

I believe it was an encounter of 2 dimensions..the spiritual and the material
it is a beautiful portrayal of a dual being trying to make sense in both dimensons at the same time.

2006-11-25 12:42:24 · answer #9 · answered by chris_muriel007 4 · 0 2

I think you're misinterpreting it. Jesus does address the problem, and in the NIV I'm reading, he calls his mother "dear woman." I don't think he's being mean to her.

I also know that during his crucicixion, he made arrangements for John to take care of his mother:

John 19:
26When Jesus saw his mother there, and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, "Dear woman, here is your son," 27and to the disciple, "Here is your mother." From that time on, this disciple took her into his home.

2006-11-25 12:41:51 · answer #10 · answered by cucumberlarry1 6 · 0 4

your drawing a conclusion on incomplete evidence. you'd make a good cop. it's not agreed that this really happened. but, mary knew who jesus was, so maybe she tried to use him to do all sorts of things. she wouldn't be the only parent to try that tactic. still, jesus turned water into wine at a party, the story goes. what a cool friend he must have been.

2006-11-25 12:40:40 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 2 3

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