They have essentially the same meaning, but the first is directly future tense, with the modal 'should' and the adverbial of future time 'soon' indicating that it will happen later, further on down the road.
The second uses the same modal and adverbial, but by changing to progressive tense, it indicates that the action is somehow going on right now, or will being going on when it happens. Therefore to receive it soon is to, in the future, get it and have it, the action done. But to be receiving it soon is to get it in the future, but have it being an ongoing action in reception.
Basically, the nuance is so slight that there is no real meaning difference between them.
2006-11-24 21:32:51
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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There really is only a difference in grammatical form.
1. is the simple form, 2. is the progressive or continuous form.
The difference in meaning is minimal.
Most speakers, except for Hiberno English, would prefer the first form.
2006-11-25 07:11:35
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answer #2
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answered by haggesitze 7
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I can't tell a discrete difference between the two. The second is passive (I think), while the first looks active. In general, the active voice is more powerful and succinct than the passive voice.
2006-11-25 03:19:23
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answer #3
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answered by ZenPenguin 7
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They're both right, but the second one would be more appropriate when doing any kind of project or something for english! The first one would be considered slang because it's not as perfect as the second!
2006-11-25 03:10:31
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answer #4
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answered by -♦One-♦-Love♦- 7
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not much difference..#1 means that you will get it soon....#2 means that you will be in the act of getting it soon...
2006-11-25 03:02:38
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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The first one is succinct and to the point. The second one is wordy.
2006-11-25 03:04:03
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answer #6
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answered by Ryan R 6
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O dear I am english and I can not tell you. I hope some one who knows more about grammer can explain it could be usefull to me
2006-11-25 03:03:04
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answer #7
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answered by Mim 7
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