English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-11-23 21:01:46 · 6 answers · asked by Steve S 1 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

6 answers

When it's ln something you put the diravtive of the bit in brackets on top of the bit in brackets not differentiated. I can't quite remember what the derivitave of cosx is but I think it's either sinx or -sinx.

So it would be something like...

sinx
____

cosx


Please check a maths text book before you base any test answers on my answer! Hope this helped.

2006-11-23 21:52:52 · answer #1 · answered by purpleboy 1 · 0 1

You can't, as far as I am aware, without doing it numerically. Other than reasonably special cases, you would only be able to integrate it if the inside part, differentiated, occurred somewhere. But in this case, it doesn't, so its not really possible.

2006-11-23 21:16:20 · answer #2 · answered by stephen m 4 · 0 1

you use integration by parts

you put u = ln (cosx) du = tg(x)

v= x dv = dx

than udv = uv - vdu

udv = x lncosx - x tg(x)

The integral of tg (x) = -ln( cosx) so

2006-11-24 00:25:24 · answer #3 · answered by maussy 7 · 0 1

Just tips, I don’t remember details. As exp(x*i)=cos(x)+i*sin(x) you first consider integral of ln(exp(x*i))=i*x on complex plane around particular point [0,0]

2006-11-23 22:06:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

i will integrate it if u integrate f((x)^(x))dx

2006-11-23 21:22:56 · answer #5 · answered by sidharth 2 · 0 1

fedest.com, questions and answers