if coulomb's law had 1\rrr depend instead of 1\rr would gauss's theorem be still valid?

Answer 1

Coulomb’s law states that the force is inversely proportional to 4Pi RR.

4Pi RR is the surface area of a sphere of radius R.

Therefore coulomb’s law can be stated as ‘the force is inversely proportional to the surface area of the sphere around a point where the charge is situated’.

A sphere contains a solid angle of 4Pi radian.

Therefore Gauss theorem is another practical application of Coulomb’s law.

That is another form of Coulomb’s law is Gauss theorem.

Another example is the Ohm’s law and Kirchoff’s law.

Hope this information is suffice as answer for your question.

Answer 2

Why do people insist on demonstrating to the world their ignorance? There are already branches of mathematics being taught for which the Pythagorean Theorem does not hold. They are called non-Euclidean geometries. It is not necessary for you to create that which already exists. Many people will listen to your theory. Equally ignorant people may even accept it as fact. But, people who educate themselves before they spout off will always see it for what it is: an ignorant attempt to attack that which you clearly do not understand. It is better to keep silent and be thought a fool than to speak and remove all doubt.

Answer 3

It wouldn't make a lot of difference since, if electromagnetic fields were inverse cube instead of inverse square, the Universe (and life) as we know it wouldn't exist anyway ☺

Answer 4

It wouldn't make a lot of difference since, if electromagnetic fields were inverse cube instead of inverse square, the Universe (and life) as we know it wouldn't exist anyway ☺


Doug

Answer 5

yeah becase gauss theorem depends on E & r not c

G=1/E * Area