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2006-11-23 06:49:34 · 4 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

You have to use substitution.

Let u = cos(x)
du = -sin(x) dx, so
-du = sin(x)dx

Therefore, your new integral becomes:

-1 / (1 + u^2)

And integrating that, you get
- tan(inverse) (u)

Resubstituting u=cos(x), you get

-tan(inverse) (cos(x))

2006-11-23 06:53:03 · answer #1 · answered by Welgar 2 · 2 0

first off you should know that
sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1
(it's a pythagorean identity)
so you can say that
cos^2(x) = 1 - sin^2(x)

substitute this in for cos^2(x)

sinx/(1 + cos^2(x))
sinx/(1 + (1 - sin^2(x))
sinx/(2 - sin^2(x))
this is a far as you can go so the answer is

sinx/(2 - sin^2(x))

2006-11-23 15:33:43 · answer #2 · answered by trackstarr59 3 · 0 0

cos(x)/2sin(x) ????????

I know I shouldn't be shooting from the hip on this one - been a long time since college.

2006-11-23 14:51:48 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

-arctan(cos(x)


Doug

2006-11-23 14:55:14 · answer #4 · answered by doug_donaghue 7 · 0 0

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