When the verbs to be and to have are auxiliary verb?
Please repley
kiss
2006-11-23 01:48:05 · 10 answers · asked by fatinagiallina 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Homework Help
To be is an auxiliary verb in the present progressive tense- example I am shopping, we are watching, she is listening.
Have is an auxiliary verb in the present perfect- example She has done her work, They have seen the show.
I discard the kiss if you are a guy. If you are a girl, I'll take the kiss.
Kitty is what we call in this country- a dumbass. It wasn't a yes or no question, Kitty.
2006-11-23 01:53:36 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
I wish you luck with this - I am English and like to think my English is very good - but must admit that I had never heard of an auxiliary verb, so had to look it up!
I suggest you look on Wiki below and see if you understand any of it! However, having read it, I think it is an auxiliary verb when it slightly changes the meaning of the verb itself, for example "I ate chocolate" is slightly different to "I have eaten chocolate", or even "I have been eating chocolate" The first suggests a specific time, whereas the second suggests that it is something that rarely happens - and the third is something that is still going on! However, "I have chocolate" is not an auxiliary verb as 'have' is the verb itself. ("I am chocolate" does not make sense, unless you are a Mars Bar!!!!)
I hope this has helped a little but - but all the best with your homework! And for those who have given your rude answers - I wonder how their Italian is!!!!
2006-11-24 00:19:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answers given are OK. The trouble is that any language taught in a class/school/college etc in nothing like the language you are going to speak in that country. When I went to live in France many moons ago, I soon found that my schoolboy french was of very little use in everyday speech. And try speaking schoolboy french in the south-east of France - oh! dear! But, that is life, and it is just the same for anyone learning English. I am a Yorkshireman, and rest my case!
2006-11-23 02:01:12 · answer #3 · answered by ALAN B 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. I suppose that knowing French would help a little, but mostly for vocabulary (like for example a beaver in French is "castor", in Italian it's "castoro", random example i know), not really for grammar.
2016-05-22 22:32:39 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
well kindly explain the question, you have to give detail right.
"to be" is used mainly in future tense for eg. 'This work has to be done' here to be is used for WORK which should be done but has not been done yet.
for more visit www.bbc.net.uk/worldservice/learningenglish
Good Luck
2006-11-23 02:12:49 · answer #5 · answered by Raj 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes they are!!
.... although with you being Italian, they are teaching you complex English!! Even I had to look that up to remember what it meant haha!!
2006-11-23 01:53:21 · answer #6 · answered by Chazza xx Baby born 7/11/09 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
one
2006-11-23 01:56:08 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Boh, non so. Viva L'Italia!
2006-11-23 01:49:41 · answer #8 · answered by gnomus12 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure I understand your question. What do you mean exactly?
2006-11-23 01:49:52 · answer #9 · answered by Arun Unni 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what is wrong if i am not an italian.................................................................
2006-11-23 02:00:35 · answer #10 · answered by JAMES 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋