1 COR 15:29 of the KJV......... Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
I'M SO CONFUSED....
2006-11-22 20:29:16 · 10 answers · asked by TOGA TOGA 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Daaaang you guys really SUCK at answering my question!!!
2006-11-22 20:39:04 · update #1
Many of the early Christians had customs that were brought over from their varied past. This may have been one of those. We are not told in the Bible.
But we know some things it is NOT.
It is not so someone else can have remission of sins. The bible teaches that we are all responsible for our own obedience and our own relationship with God. Our own baptism is "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38). Jesus said "HE that believes and is baptized shall be saved"! (Mark 16:16)
We will each be judged for what WE have done, not according to what someone else has done. (John 5:29) "The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him." (Ezekiel 18:20)
Notice also, baptism for the dead is not commanded in this verse or anywhere else in the Bible. Paul just comments on something others are doing. In fact, it says "what shall THEY do...", not "we" or even "you". Paul is simply making an application from the custom observed among others. (This is similar to how he noticed some had an alter "to the unknown God". He did not command, or even approve, the use of that type of worship, but he used it as an example.)
Also, baptism for the dead is not the main subject being addressed in this context. Paul is simply using this to show the contradiction between not believing in the resurrection and doing something for those to be raised. To address the subject of baptism for the dead in more detail here, he would have to leave the subject he is discussing.
There are plenty of other verses that teach the purpose of baptism and the fact that we will be judged on our own response to God's word. "Baptism for the dead" (as taught by the Mormons) does not fit these other verses.
Baptism for the dead is NOT the baptism of the great commission (Matt. 28:18-20, Mark 16:15-16), and it is not the baptism for remission of sins (Acts 2:38). Baptism for the remission of sins was addressed to "each one of you". Again the personal responsibility.
2006-11-24 13:47:12 · answer #1 · answered by JoeBama 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Thank you for your question. We have to look at the culteral and historical setting of the time this passage was written in order to understand it.
At the time the Apostle Paul wrote 1st Corinthians there were two false teachings that had crept into the church. One, that Christ had not been raised and therefore, believers would not be raised either. The second false teaching was that Christians should be baptized for Christians who had died without having been batized so that those deceased Christians could one day be resurrected. The false teachers were saying that believers who had died without having been baptized would not be raised.
You can probably already see the contradiction in these two false teachings. The Apostle Paul shot down both false teachings by essentially asking the church, "If Christ has not been raised, and the dead do not rise, why are you being baptized for the dead?" Paul was pointing out that the Corinthians couldn't believe the false teaching about there not being a resurrection and at the same time be baptized for deceased believers so they could rise again. I hope this helps some.
2006-11-23 08:29:49 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The corinthians had a lot of strange cultic beliefs invented by a lot of people in corinth who were not true believers but probably christian cults.
All we can do is speculate. This is a historical incident concerning some kind of a practice that was going on in the corinthian cults. Without any details we can't really know for sure what was going on and Paul simply doesn't give any details. Let me speculate a little bit. There seems to be a group of people in corinth who were praying for the dead and at the same time claiming that there wouldn't be a final resurrection of the dead. Paul is simply saying "if you don't believe in a resurrection, then why waste time praying for the dead". This isn't christian doctrine. He's not saying we should pray for the dead. This is just a historical incident that happened and Paul is mentioning it. He's saying "you are inconsistent in your (false) beliefs. The practice was so obviously wrong that Paul does not even condemn it or explain it. Notice he says "they"(others), not "we"(the true believers),"baptize for the dead"(verse 29). But you can only speculate because Paul simply doesn't give any details.
One thing we know for sure is that Paul wasn't teaching that we should pray for the dead. Nowhere in the bible does it teach that nor did Paul ever teach it in his writings in the New testament.
2006-11-23 05:36:41 · answer #3 · answered by upsman 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
29Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?
The term "dead" refers to the state of mind of a man...... Dead meaning not with spiritual life...... They do not believe.... they do not know, nor do they choose to understand....... and so are spiritually dead......
Why baptize the spiritually "dead"?....
the age of accountablity is when one comes to understand and chose to make a decision based on what they know....
This is when a person should decide to follow Christ or not.... Otherwise, they cannot be held accountable for not knowing what it means.... They become baptized by choice based on their understanding of what it means to be a Christian and a follower of Christ......
The "dead" follow not what they know......( John 4:22 )
Luke 9:60 -- Let the dead bury the dead...... (those without spiritual understanding)
Your sister,
Ginger
2006-11-23 04:51:01 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Paul was referring to those people who during Paul's time in their religious practice baptize themselves for their dead relatives. Paul was arguing how then they do not believe in resurrection of the dead if they baptize themselves for the dead. I believe Paul was using this as a point of argument not that he approved of baptizing for the dead.
2006-11-23 04:45:15 · answer #5 · answered by seekfind 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
gibberish written 2000 years ago. Of course you don't understand it. Nobody really KNOWS what it means
Look at the other answers, they can't even agree amongst themselves, how could anyone know what it means
2006-11-23 04:32:42 · answer #6 · answered by Nemesis 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I agree with seekfind!
2006-11-23 06:04:13 · answer #7 · answered by mandbturner3699 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20061111183052AA115ri
2006-11-23 04:43:02 · answer #8 · answered by DREAMER 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it means,
Jesus is dead
and you are dead meat.
2006-11-23 04:35:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
lol.... out of context! out of context! out of context! out of context!
2006-11-23 04:49:15 · answer #10 · answered by lnfrared Loaf 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋