2006-11-22 18:59:00 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
No, it is not in the U.S. Constitution, contrary to what people say. This term was written by Thomas Jefferson in a letter to the Danbury (Connecticut) Baptist Association.
The term was never mentioned by the Supreme Court until 1878, and then not again until 1947, when it suddenly became "law."
I have several copies of the U.S. Constitution, both script and print, and none of them have that term in them. It is only in the past 60 years that the term came to mean what it has become.
2006-11-22 19:08:40 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The phrase about "a wall separating church and state" was used by Thomas Jefferson in a letter to the leaders of the Danbury Baptist Association. The Constitution's "Establishment Clause" in Amdt. 1 does not specifically call for the disengagement of government and spirituality. It is instead a mandate forbidding the preferential treatment of any particular religion. Since nearly any involvement of government with any particular faith could be construed as favoritism, in practice we now have a system where government attempts to treat all citizens equally without regard to religion.
2006-11-23 03:16:36 · answer #2 · answered by datamonkey0031 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer is no. Simply put it forbade the government from dictating religious practices to the people. The morals and influence were not meant to be excluded.
Amendment 1
FREEDOM OF RELIGION, SPEECH, AND THE PRESS; RIGHTS OF ASSEMBLY AND PETITION
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.
COMMENTARY:
Many countries have made one religion the established (official) church and support it with government funds. This amendment forbids Congress to set up or in any way provide for an established church. It has been interpreted to forbid government endorsement of or aid to religious doctrines. In addition, Congress may not pass laws limiting worship, speech, or the press, or preventing people from meeting peacefully. Congress also may not keep people from asking the government for relief from unfair treatment. The Supreme Court has interpreted the 14th Amendment as applying the First Amendment to the states as well as to the federal government.
2006-11-23 03:11:24 · answer #3 · answered by G-Man 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes - the separation of church and state is written into the Constitution. The Founding Fathers believed in God but knew a theocracy doesn't work.
2006-11-23 03:01:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes but not the way society says. It was meant to keep the government from running a religion(EX. Church of England) which never work out. Society has stretched it way past this.
2006-11-23 03:05:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, that phrase doesn't exist in our Constitution.
Nor does the phrase "fair trial", though we find the conditions for "fair trial" in the sixth amendment. While the phrase may not exist itself, the conditions and necessities are clearly there in both cases.
2006-11-23 03:11:52 · answer #6 · answered by Samurai Jack 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Does not exist in the US Constitution, not even in the first amendment.
I Cr 13;8a
11-22-6
2006-11-23 03:02:12 · answer #7 · answered by ? 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it won't be long when the state starts closing down the churches of all faith. Last prophecy before Armageddon.
2006-11-23 03:03:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. It is found in both Jefferson's and Franklin's writings, however, in their interpretations of the meanings of the Constitution.
2006-11-23 03:01:35 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Nope. No where to be found in the constitution.
2006-11-23 03:00:32 · answer #10 · answered by happy pilgrim 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋