why do jehovah's witness stumper and do not like to be ask these questions?

Question

If the organization did not actually prophesy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn't come as they had implied over and over again," said Jim Penton, an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia Americana.)

If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling them "inspired" yet the Watchtower organization does call themselves "God's Spirit-directed Prophet" what is the difference? Is there such a thing as an "uninspired prophet"? See Organization claims inspiration

Has the Society ever taught anything scripturally incorrect? See Prophecy Blunders of the Organization
Might the Society be teaching anything scripturally incorrect now?

Since the Organization has received "new light" regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their view on this, does this mean that all the former Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped years ago for the same view the organization is now teaching will automatically be accepted into fellowship again? Were these Ex-Jw's in fact disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did not? See Jw's were disfellowshipped for rejecting generation doctrine
Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with other Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower doctrine?

Can individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or do they need an organization and it's publications to do so? Click here find the answer!
How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing to "what the organization tells him" about December 25 being the date of Jesus’ birthday and a Jw’ appealing to "what the organization tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you chide the "poor deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support it, when the same goes for you and 1935?

How do you know that there were any vacancies, if any, in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this to first century Christians? How can the organization know the exact number of vacancies today without any records from the first century?
Why are you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's Witnesses appeal to Isa 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that they should be called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then what was the "new name" prophesied in Isa 62:2? Can't be "Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters earlier. Could the new name be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?
Why would the name God gave to His people not be "Christians" since Acts 11:26 says, "The disciples were first called Christians in Antioch"? Why is the name "Jehovah's Witness" found nowhere in the New Testament, if that is God's divine name for His people under the new covenant?

Why would God wait almost 2000 years to suddenly start using the name "Jehovah's Witness". Does this mean that first century Christians were not known as Jehovah's Witnesses"?
If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it never used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the name of God, "YHWH" when they copied the New Testament, as only the Watchtower organization claims, then how can we have any confidence in any of the New Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the Watchtower organization as unreliable?

If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why does Acts 4:12 say, "There is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name [v10 Jesus Christ] under heaven that has been given among men, by which we must be saved"? Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?
What is the correct spelling of God's proper name "Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that "Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell it "Jehovah"? If the name of God is so important, then should you not only pronounce it correctly, but spell it correctly too? Is not spelling more important than pronunciation?

Since the Jehovah's Witness organization currently rejects most of the teachings of its founder Charles Taze Russell (who was president of the organization from 1879-1916), and since they also reject "Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from 1916 - 1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's Witnesses won't also reject the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present), as they did Russell and Rutherford?
What kind of confidence can anyone have in an organization that rejected its founder and first two presidents for the first 63 years of its existence? This represents about 53% of the time they have existed!
Since the Watchtower organization claims "apostolic succession" who was it that "passed the torch of God's Spirit" to C. T. Russel when he founded the organization? What was the name of this individual?

In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo" is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, Jn 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Mt 14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Lk 24:52, Heb 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same word in the Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan" used with reference to God in Rev 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used with reference to Christ in Mt 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo" as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read?

The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation?

The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as "Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Mt 3:3, Lk 2:9, Jn 1:23, Acts 21:14, Rom 12:19, Col 1:10, 1Thess 5:2, 1Pet 1:25, Rev 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah" translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Rom 10:9, 1Cor 12:3, Phil 2:11, 2Thess 2:1, and Rev 22:21 (see Gr-Engl Interlinear)?
To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this temple" in Jn 2:18- 19? See Jn 2:21.
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, why does he directly speak and refer to himself as "I" and "me" in Acts 13:2?
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as "I am" every time it appears (Jn 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5, etc.), except in Jn 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been". What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation?

If "ego eimi" was translated in Jn 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse in which it appears, how would Jn 8:58 read?

In Rev 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one who is "coming quickly", says of himself, " I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end". In Rev 1:17-18, Jesus, the one who "became dead, but, look! I am living forever and ever", refers to himself as the first and the last. Rev 21:6, in speaking of God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end ...". God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isa 44:6 and Isa 48:12. How can this be since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?

Jn 1:3 says that Jesus created "all things", but in Isa 44:24, God says that he "by myself" created the heavens and the earth and asks the question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have been with God when everything else was created?
Col 1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All [other] things have been created through him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isa 43:7 says God created "everyone ... for my OWN glory...".

The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Rev 7:4 is to be taken literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Rev 7:5- 8).
If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a distinction between the body and the soul in Mt 10:28?
The NWT translates Jn 1:1 as "... and the Word was WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god" if God says in Deut 32:39, "See now that I-I am he, and there are NO gods together WITH me ..."?
Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 9:6 ("For there has been a child born to us, there has been a son given to us ... And his name will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God ..."). Jehovah is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isa 10:20-21. How can this be if there is only one God (1Cor 8:4, Isa 43:10, 44:6)?

If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both hands together over his head, why does Jn 20:25 say "...Unless I see in his hands the print of the nailS ...", indicating that there was more than one nail used for his hands?
Jesus uses the phrase "Truly I say to you, ..." over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word "you" every time except in Lk 23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the comma placed after "today" instead of after "you" in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Lk 23:43 was consistent with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it appears (see concordance), and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would it read?

The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as "is" in almost every instance in the New Testament (Mt 26:18, 38, Mk 14:44, Lk 22:38, etc.). See Greek-English Interlinear. Why does the NWT translate this Greek word as "means" in Mt 26:26-28, Mk 14:22-24, and Lk 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word "esti"? If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti" as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say?
In Jn 20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me". Why does Jesus, in Jn 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous statement?
If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then how will he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Mt 24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Rev 1:7) when he returns?

If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force, how could he: Be referred to as "he" and "him" in Jn 16:7-8 and Jn 16:13-14; Bear witness - Jn 15:26; Feel hurt - Isa 63:10; Be blasphemed against - Mk 3:29; Say things - Ezek 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Heb10:15-17, Rev 2:7; Desire - Gal 5:17; Be outraged - Heb 10:29; Search -1Cor 2:10; Comfort - Acts 9:31; Be loved - Rom 15:30 ; Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4?

What is the meaning of Rev 14:9-11, which says, "... If anyone worships the wild beast ... he shall be tormented with fire and sulphur ... And the smoke of their torment ascends forever and ever ...". Where could "anyone" be "tormented ... forever and ever"?
Jn 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence". How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence through him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to Jn 1:3, Jesus would have had to create himself.
If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to "receive my spirit"? How could Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's spirit ceases to exist when the body dies?

If the great crowd is to have everlasting life on paradise EARTH, why does 1Thess 4:17 say, "...we the living who are surviving will, together with them, be caught away in clouds to MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR; and thus we shall always be with the Lord"?
If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE hope (Eph 4:4), instead of two?
If there is no conscious awareness after death, how could the "spirits in prison" be preached to by Christ after his death (1Pet 3:18-20) and how could the good news be "declared also to the dead" (1Pet 4:6)?

In Phil 2:9, the NWT inserts the word "other", even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek (see Gr-Engl Interlinear). What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word "Jehovah" a name? See Ex 6:3, Ps 83:18, and Isa 42:8. How would the verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? See Prov 30:5-6.
Heb 9:28, speaking of Christ, says "... and the second time he appears..." How can Christ APPEAR a second time if he will not have a visible return to earth?
Amos 4:11 says, "'I caused an overthrow among you people, like God's overthrow of Sodom and Gomorrah. And you came to be like a log snatched out of [the] burning; but you did not come back to me,' is the utterance of Jehovah." How can Jehovah speaking in this verse refer to another person as God ("... like GOD'S overthrow of Sodom ...")?
In Rev 19:1, where does it say that the "great crowd" will be?

Answer 1

This so-called "question" is clearly intended as a screed against Jehovah's Witnesses, rather than as an actual question. But the Messiah and Savior Christ Jesus never authorized such a focused attack on a specific religion; instead Christ commanded true Christians to preach "this good news of the Kingdom" (see below).

Attacks like this so-called "question" do not come from an attempt to honor Christ; these attacks come from bigotry, anger, and hatred. Interestingly, such "hatred" should be expected by true Christians in this time of the end, and it actually helps identify Jehovah's Witnesses as Christ's true disciples:

(John 15:19) If you were part of the world, the world would be fond of what is its own. Now because you are no part of the world, but I have chosen you out of the world, on this account the world hates you.

(Luke 6:22) Happy are you whenever men hate you, and whenever they exclude you and reproach you and cast out your name as wicked for the sake of the Son of man.

(1 Peter 4:4) Because you do not continue running with them in this course to the same low sink of debauchery, they are puzzled and go on speaking abusively of you.

(2 Timothy 4:3-5) For there will be a period of time when they will not put up with the healthful teaching, but, in accord with their own desires, they will accumulate teachers for themselves to have their ears tickled; and they will turn their ears away from the truth, whereas they will be turned aside to false stories. You, though, keep your senses in all things, suffer evil, do the work of an evangelizer, fully accomplish your ministry.

It seems signficant that the relatively small religion of Jehovah's Witnesses are the ones best known for their worldwide preaching work. Yet Jesus commanded that ALL who would call themselves "Christian" perform this public work:

(Matthew 28:19,20) Go therefore and make disciples of people of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, teaching them to observe all the things I have commanded you. And, look! I am with you all the days until the conclusion of the system of things.


Thanks for another opportunity to demonstrate how unique true Christianity really is in this world!

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/library/jt/index.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20030301/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/e/20020401/article_01.htm

Answer 2

The questions are in the Organized To Do Jehovah's Will book (that small little green one) on pages 182 - 216. So why not have a look at them, they even come with guidance to each question of how the organisation has answered so it is not even a test but to see if you have yourself an understanding. You can pre-study them first so you have a round knowledge of them before you have a meeting. I even went through these questions and answers with my home Bible study conductor beforehand. Don't worry it is not an exam or a point scoring test. It is beneficial to have a good round understanding of our beliefs and what it is to be a Jehovah's Witness and what it involves. It is so that you can be sure yourself on baptism day and you will be glad of this faith strengthening discussion. It is a loving thing that you can feel sure about the most important decision you will make in your life - serving Jehovah. When I went through these questions in 2007 it was in an informal setting at my home. The questions were in two parts so I had two different elders visit me. They were not testing me but would help me if I needed clarity on things and the book would help me too.

Answer 3

RE:
why do jehovah's witness stumper and do not like to be ask these questions?
If the organization did not actually prophesy the end in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately afterwards? ("They lost roughly three-quarters of the movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the end didn't come as they...

Answer 4

Speculation is dangerous. People read into a statement because they want it to be true, such as the date for the end. when what they have imagined doesn't happen, they lose what little faith they had and are stumbled. Prophecy is often not understood until after it is fulfilled or while it is being fulfilled. all we can do is wait and watch. Hopefully by keeping our faith and hope strong, studying the inspired Bible, staying awake to current events, we will not be like those of Noah's day who took no note and died in the deluge.
http://www.watchtower.org/e/20051201/article_01.htm
There was about a 1% decrease in the amount of Jehovah's Witnesses after 1976. I personally don't consider that "huge". However, from 1980 to today, the numbers have steadily grown from a little over 2 million to over 6.6 million. That is huge, and demonstrates Jehovah's backing.

Answer 5

You must have been disfellowshipped for something really bad. Worse than mine, and I was sleeping with three women, at once.

This is very long winded. Funny, I was in the congregations in the late 70s and I didn't see a decrease. Congregations in that as a long haul truck driver I went to several around the country. Their numbers doubled than tripled.

Yes, they made mistakes, but at least they are trying to do right, you don't see that in any other religion.

I've dealt with your types since I was disfellowshipped in 1982 by the Corning, CA Congregation. They keep giving me these so called facts and say that I don't have to give the real reason I was disfellowshipped. They tell me that I could say that the reason was because I learned all these so called facts. No one would question me about it and the witnesses never open their records, to disprove a claim, so I would be considered a hero for exposing them. I never liked being considered a hero, even in those cases where I have been, so I decline.

Answer 6

Since when do all Catholics believe that Dec. 25th is exactly the correct day Jesus was born? Is that some sort of catholic doctrine I missed? I don't know about all the JW stuff, other than that it's crazy. I'd like to see something that says Catholics must believe Christmas day was the true birthday of Jesus, and not that they should celebrate it on that day. 'Cause now I'm confused.
I was also under the impression that JW's don't celebrate holidays at all because they have roots in pagan ritual. Is that true?

Answer 7

Dear Jesus Witness,

For a couple of years while I was growing up my mother told me that if I didn't become a jw before February 3, 1962, I wouldn't be saved because Armageddon was going to come that day. I didn't become a jw and the day came and went.

I had written Mom's prophecy in my diary and pretty much forgot about it. But in 1995 I was preparing to move and throwing things out. I re-read my diaries before shredding them and was reminded of that prophecy about the time that I was reading Deuteronomy 18:20-22. Was the timing a coincidence? I don't think so. I knew that since the jws have prophesied many such dates without them being fulfilled that they are NOT speaking God's Word.

You ask about anything the Society teaches that is scripturally incorrect and the first thing that comes to mind is that jws assure me that Jesus Christ is the angel Michael. They can't show me a Bible verse that says such is the case but they assure me that it is so.

I echo what Debbie said about reading the Bible.

There is a wonderful chart at http://soulright.com
called One Truth Exposes a Thousand Lies - Traits Shared Between Jehovah and Jesus.

It is worth checking out.

Answer 8

Unfortunately you are misled with a lot of false teachings yourself and believing ex-JWs is one of them. There's a lot to discuss in your posted questions but I don't think you may want to hear what the Bible really says.

I'll give you an example, The holy spirit is a part of God, not a separate person. Luke 11:20 called it the "God's finger". See Mat 12:28. This is what God uses to talk to his people and help them. So even if Acts 13:2 says "I" and "me" it is actually referring to the Father himself. Example, if you use your hand to clap, someone can say to you "You clapped". You use your hand in clapping, but your hand is not a person but a physical part of the person. God's spirit is a part of God, when it does something it refers to the SAME person, not to a different person. The holy spirit is used to be "baptized WITH" like water not baptized INTO, it is also used to "annoint WITH" like oil, and not annoint INTO.

It will be a long discussion if you want to discuss all of the points there, but if the Bible proves you wrong are you willing to change your views?

Answer 9

Jehovah's 'witness' is a very peculiar name.. which implies they WITNESSED Jehovah, when in reality they don't even know what they are talking about.

The just copy pasted some biblic verses and boom, new religion.

Answer 10

Who, in their right mind, cares about all this, other than a really hurt former Jehova's witness?

All that I have ever seen of these people is, how their beliefs and their relationships, brainwashing, scaremongering etc, affects their own followers. Most of them are mentally disturbed, quite unable to live a normal life, and in the best case, emotionally scarred for life.

Anyone with a speck of common sense, would keep well away from them. They are a sect in the real sense of that word, those guided by God through their hearts have them for a laugh.

Only God knows how they deserved what they bring upon themselves!