What does the word Virgin mean in language of Jesus.(aramaic-or hebrew)?

Question

Does it mean something else than what it was translated too? Are the words Virgin Mary meaning she who was not Deflowered?(for lack of a better word).

As always no Snake Preachers Answers will be accepted. I want facts people. Not your version of them. Send Links

Answer 1

You're asking the question backwards. The question should be what hebrew words (if we're speaking of prophetic scriptures of the messiah) have been translated as 'virgin' and are these translations correct and what do the hebrew words actually mean?

The most common mistranslation is found in Isaiah 7:14, the 'proof text' used to predict that Jesus was born of a virgin. The problem is that the word used in Isa 7:14 is 'almah' which means 'young woman'. It says nothing of her marital or sexual status, although examing its usage elsewhere indicates that it refers to a woman who has had sexual relations (whether marital or otherwise). Further, the hebrew word 'betulah', which does mean a virgin in every sense, was well known to the author of Isaiah and used the word 'betulah' at least on 5 other occasions within the text of Isaiah.

The other problem with using Isa 7:14 as a proof text is that the woman indicated goes on to give birth to a son, as predicted. If that woman was a virgin, then it means that the birth of Jesus is not unique and why should Jesus be considered messiah by virtue of his mother's alleged chastity and the child born in Isaiah's time was just a boy?

Fact of the matter is that a child born of an apparent illicit relationship (how does one prove virginity after the birth or later) would be ostracized from birth by the Jewish people and have no possibility of becoming a king, a requirement for messiah. For Jesus to be the promised messiah to the Jews and be born under the circumstances alleged by Matthew is simply impossible.

Answer 2

Because Isaiah 7:14 is the ONLY verse in the entire Jewish Bible that could be forced to mean a virgin birth; there is no other verse that comes anywhere close. If you point out that Isaiah 7:14 doesn't even speak if a virgin birth, the Christians have NOTHING to fall back on, and will have to come to the realization that the NT claims that the messiah would be born of a virgin are false, and if that is false, how much else in the NT is false, and it snowballs until they must come to realize the entire thing is false. The notion that Jesus was a god-in-the-flesh depends upon his having been born much differently than any other man. The virgin birth would fill that need. The god/men of the pagans were usually born of virgins, so the early Christians claimed Jesus was (also) born of a virgin. Paul (who made up the religion) didn't mention virgin birth. He speaks of a Christ that apparently appeared as an adult without genealogy at all. That's why Paul compared Christ to Melkhizedek, "having no father or mother nor beginning of life nor end of days."

Answer 3

The word in Hebrew in Isaiah (where the prophecy of the "virgin" giving birth) is actually Almah... which simply means Young Woman... has Nothing to do with actual virginity. In Aramaic, in Matthew (I believe it is) it is written as virgin and then linked to the prophecy in Isaiah... Sorry I don't have any links, I got this information out of a Hebrew/English translation Study book from the Hebrew Union College in Cincinnati, Ohio.

Answer 4

Virgin means absolutely nothing in Aramaic. They didnt speak english back then.....

What you meant to ask was "What is the translation for the greek word 'alma', which Christianity mistook as 'virgin'?" Your answer is that the word actually means "young owman" and does not remotely remark upon her virginity or lack thereof at all. But if youre gonna make Jesus into a God, he better be more than just another human, so they invented a big lie called the Immaculate Conception.

Answer 5

Oh! SUCH a good question!

Basically, look at the bible that Matthew was reading. He wasn't reading KJV as english didn't exist! :) He was reading a greek translation of the hebrew old testement. It's called the Septuigent. At the risk of giving you TOO much information (I hate it when people spam), Matthew is using a mistranslation of a word in the Septuagent (he refers to a passage in Isaiah) when he comes up with the idea that Christ would be born of a virgin.

There are two hebrew words usually translated 'virgin' in English. 'Bethulah' means virgin in the sense that we understand it. It was used, for example, in Isaiah 62:5. 'Almah' (the word used in Isaiah 7:14) simply means a young woman. Although it is sometimes used in the sense of a sexually pure woman, this is not it's exclusive usage. The context will usually point out the correct usage.
The confusion arose when the Greek Septuagint used the greek word 'parthenos' to translate Isaiah 7:14. This word, in Greek, does denote a sexually pure woman, and was the inspiration for the gospellers myth of the Virgin birth.
A look at the context of Isaiah 7:14 will quickly reveal that the woman that Isaiah was referring to was probably *already* pregnant, thus pointing out which sense of 'almah' was intended. In any case, the point of Isaiah's prophecy was that before the child reached the age of accountability, both Israel and Syria would be desolated. (A prophecy which was only partly fulfilled, by the way). The use of the word 'virgin' is not germane in Isaiah's prophecy. The 'sign' was the child, not a miraculous conception.
In short, Isaiah's 'sign' was fulfilled in it's own context, hundreds of years before anyone thought to apply it in a different sense.

Answer 6

In Hebrew, the word is "bethulah". But in the passage in Isaiah 7 that is an alleged Messianic prophecy, the word used is "almah" which refers to a young woman (virginity status not specified). Don't fall for the hype. Read the entire context of Isaiah and you'll see it's not about Jesus at all!

Answer 7

The answer lies in just how the 70 Rabbis of the Septuagint translation chose to translate the Hebrew word "alma" - which could mean "young woman" OR "virgin".

In the passage in Isaiah "and a virgin will conceive" - for the translation from Hebrew to Greek - i.e., the Septuagint (authorized Greek version of the Old Testament) - the Rabbis were clear - the Greek word that they chose was:

"PARTHENOS"** - this can only mean "virgin".

The Rabbis certainly knew what was meant in Isaiah's prophesy.

Answer 8

What Does Aramaic Mean

Answer 9

If you read Isaiah, Chapter No. 7, Verse No 14, says, prophesying of…‘The coming of a person who will be born to a virgin - his name shall be Emmanuel.’ They say… the Christians - it refers to Jesus Christ peace be upon him. Born to a virgin - the Hebrew word there is ‘amla’, which means not ‘a virgin’- ‘a young lady.’ The word for ‘virgin’ in Hebrew is, ‘baitula’, which is not there. Even if you agree - we are using concordance - we agree… ‘Virgin’… ‘Virgin’ - No problem. It says… ‘He will be called Immanuel.’ No where in the Bible is Jesus Christ peace be upon him, is called as Immanuel -

Unfulfilled prophecy.

Answer 10

The Hebrew word bethu·lah′ signifies a woman who has never been united to a man in marriage and has never had sexual intercourse.
The Greek term par·the′nos, however, can apply to both single men and single women.
Another term (‛al·mah′) means “maiden” and can apply to a nonvirgin or a virgin.