2006-11-21 15:02:51 · 8 answers · asked by ROBERTO O 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
4/16 or 25%
The follow table are the possibilities
Girl 0 1 2 3 4
Boy 4 3 2 1 0
The probability of having all boys is easy to figure out; it is 1/16. That is calculated by multiplying 1/2x1/2x1/2x1/2. The probability of having all girls is the same. 1/16.
The probability of 2 boys and 2 girls is calculated by noting that 2 circumstances exist. In one the first 2 children are the same sex; the last 2 must be the opposite sex. Therefore you multiply 1/2x1/2x1/2 and get 1/8 (or 2/16) of this occurring. In the chance that first 2 are equally split one boy one girl then the third child can be either sex and only the last one matters leading to another 1/2 x 1/2 = 4/16. For a total of 6/16
Therefore the remaining probably of 3 boys and 1 girl or the alternative of 1 boy and 3 girls is the difference namely 8/16.
Since it is equally probable to get 3B/1G or 1B/3G, the probability of 1 girl is half of the 8/16, namely 4/16
2006-11-21 15:09:42 · answer #1 · answered by Cafegeek 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
One out of 5.
Possible combos:
1 boy, 3 girls
2 boys, 2 girls
1 girl, 3 boys
0 boys, 4 girls (my family!!)
0 girls, 4 boys
2006-11-21 15:06:37 · answer #2 · answered by mandiedq 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
That is a good question. A study would have to have been done, and I don't know of any. It would theoreticly be the same as fliping a coin and having it come up as heads 3 times and tails (lol) once, really. probablility wise it should be about the same, but I don't know the prob of that.
2006-11-21 15:09:53 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
always 1 out of 2
2006-11-21 15:04:54 · answer #4 · answered by Coke-n-Snickers 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
(one million/2)(one million/2)(one million/2)(one million/2) = one million/sixteen the possibility of anybody order is one million/sixteen that's distinctive than the possibility of one million boy and 3 ladies in any order, which could be 4 * one million/sixteen = one million/4
2016-12-29 07:51:53 · answer #5 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
25%
2006-11-21 15:05:59 · answer #6 · answered by GucciGirl 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Depending on your age, the month, etc--it could be to 80% in either direction.
Technically, however, there's a 50% chance of having either sex.
2006-11-21 15:05:56 · answer #7 · answered by FaZizzle 7 · 0⤊ 3⤋
I'VE HAD FRIENDS WHO HAD 4 GIRLS AND THEN A BOY. OTHER ONE HAD 4 BOYS AND 2 GIRLS. GOOD LUCK. THERE ARE SUPPOSE TO BE SOME THINGS TO TRY IF YOU WANT A BOY OR A GIRL.
2006-11-21 15:05:39 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋