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But Bible says, "For we write nothing to you that you do not read and understand." 2 Cor. 1:13

No mention of Pope and his goons.

Jesus says that His sheep will follow Him, will follow the truth John 14:6, and they will not follow a stranger.

2006-11-21 09:26:36 · 16 answers · asked by House Speaker 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Midge, Show me that "Mary’s body and soul were Assumed up into Heaven to be with God on the throne. This is what your church teach. Show me please in scripture.

2006-11-21 09:44:42 · update #1

epostle11, You ask me "to produce a single biblical text that uses the words "the Bible alone" in reference to the rule of faith."

Here, "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, 2 Timothy 3:16

"Thy word is a lamp unto my feet and a light unto my path."Psalms 119:105

The Purpose of the Bible is to keeps us from Sin, Lights our Way, Enlightens Us, Instructs Us, Purifies Us, Frees Us and Saves Us. II Peter 1:21

Now Epostle11, Show me other books beside the bible with God-breathed? NONE!

If you truly love Jesus and want to make it to heaven, do what He says. "If a man love me, he will keep my words. John 14:23

The Bible emphatically condemns the use of tradition as a source of authority because whenever tradition is set up alongside of Scripture, it eventually is placed above Scripture and is then used to interpret Scripture.

2006-11-21 11:51:13 · update #2

Adoptive Father FYI,

"Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy or vain deceit, after the tradition of man,and not after Christ." Colossians 2:8.

What did the Angel of the Lord said to Mary?

And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. Luke 1:28

Notice that the Biblical text does not say, "Hail Mary full of grace..." This is a misinterpretation of the Greek text.

God gave this special honor to Mary to bear the Messiah. To Grace...not "full of grace."

It was God induing Mary with this special honor of giving birth to the Messiah.

Mary was not full of grace but rather highly favored.

The Bible says that Jesus was full of grace and truth, not Mary.

There is NO MENTION IN SCRIPTURES where Mary has anything to do with salvation. There is one redeemer, Not Two. Mary was Not Qualified to redeem mankind.

MARY intercessions will "NOT HELP"

2006-11-21 12:23:30 · update #3

Doug FYI,

The fact is that the Catholic Religion did not exist at the time of Jesus so Peter had nothing to do with something which did not exist.

The "true church of Jesus Christ" existed first and is separate and apart from Catholicism.

2006-11-21 13:08:39 · update #4

Doug,

When did the Church established by Jesus Christ get the name Catholic?

The true Church of Jesus has no molested children.

2006-11-21 13:39:07 · update #5

Doug,
Children, Sexual Abuse and the Catholic Priest scandal? "Shame" is the first stage of Catholic Purgatory.

2006-11-21 13:40:34 · update #6

16 answers

that's why after studying the Holy Bible myself with help of God's Holy Spirit I came to my senses and left the Catholic Chrurch.

2006-11-21 09:36:52 · answer #1 · answered by I-C-U 5 · 1 2

I am going to give Midge a hand here and try to answer the second question here about the Virgin Mary. You are right that the Bible does not have a verse which says in so many words that Mary was conceived immaculately and was assumed into heaven. As the above poster said, the Catholic faith includes not only the Bible but also roughly 2,000 years of theological thought, debate and interpretation of what the Bible really means.

In the Book of Luke the Angel Gabriel tells Mary "The Lord is with you" and also tells her "You have found favor with God".

What does this mean? We Catholics take Gabriel's words as the basis for our belief in the Immaculate Conception and the Assumption of Mary. Most (all?) Protestant denominations do not come to the same conclusions regarding Mary. Of course different groups interpret the same chapter and verse differently, which is why there are hundreds of Christian denominations.

We agree that Mary is not the savior.

2006-11-21 18:11:09 · answer #2 · answered by Adoptive Father 6 · 2 1

In Acts 8:27-39: Philip asks the Ethiopian reading the prophet Isaiah, "Do you understand what you are reading?" The Ethiopian replied, "How can I, unless someone instructs me?"

The verse from 2 Corinthians that you cite would only be applicable to the documents that Paul and the other Apostles had written up to that time. The Jews had centuries of Holy Scripture interpretation in the priests and rabbis.

Paul's second letter to the Corinthians was written about 57 A.D. All of the Gospels, the Acts of the Apostles, and Revelation were written after Paul's letter and may or may not apply to his statement in 1:13.

The original readers of the Epistles also knew Greek and all the slang and idioms used in their time. They knew (and lived) the culture, politics, and habits of everyday life of the first century A.D.

If I knew the original languages in which the Bible were written, namely Hebrew, Greek, and a little Aramaic, archeology, and theology as well as you do then maybe I would not need the Church to help me.

On a practical note, being able to keep an eye on the big picture has kept the Catholic Church together for almost 2,000 years with over 1.1 billion living believers.

Churches that interpret the Bible any way they wish keep splintering off each other to the point that there are now well over 10,000 non-Catholic Christian denominations.

Jesus told the 72 disciples who were being sent out to teach the people about Jesus, "Whoever listens to you listens to me. Whoever rejects you rejects me. And whoever rejects me rejects the one who sent me." (Luke 10:16)

With love in Christ.

2006-11-22 00:47:06 · answer #3 · answered by imacatholic2 7 · 1 2

so you are another Catholic hater? see this is why non Christians can look at the Christian faith and scoff at it when they read and hear this kind of bias among us.
now I am speaking logically here when I ask you what do you think your ancestors if they were Christian before the reformation were? and let me ask you how two sinful men like Martin Luther and King Henry the eighth could have the power or the authority to usurp the church that Christ founded on the rock(Peter)?
finally Jesus commanded Peter and the Apostles to go forth and preach the Good News and empowered them to do so, now as the Popes are the ordained succession of Peter and Bishops are the succession of the Apostles how difficult is it to put two and two together.

2006-11-21 17:39:45 · answer #4 · answered by Sentinel 7 · 2 1

The Catholic Church is no Stranger.

We CAN understand, but it would take three lifetimes to go over all of the meanings, translations of the time, and history to truly understand all that is written in the Bible.

The Pope has no "goons"

I trust that the Catholic Church can interpret the Bible better than any man, me included.

The problem comes when people follow a self proclaimed expert who uses scripture to advance their Cause, (Jim Jones, and they guy in Waco TX are two)

Jesus gave the keys to Peter, there was a reason for that.

I used to be anti-Catholic also, I know all of the arguments, when I researched them for myself, I found myself realizing that the Catholic Church (even though not all Catholics, including me, are perfect) has it right.

Good Luck and God Bless!

2006-11-21 17:37:19 · answer #5 · answered by C 7 · 2 2

That is exacty the REASON WHY, for 1300 years, it was TABOO to read the Bible and NO ONE was allowed access to it... Until the invention of the first printing press in the 16th century came along and Gutenburg published the original translations of the Holy Bible into German and English.

As a result, that publication spawned the birth of the Great Reformation and Protestantism began.

Today our history books aptly call those 1,300 years as Man's "Dark Ages"...

Peace be with you.

2006-11-21 17:39:36 · answer #6 · answered by Arf Bee 6 · 0 1

that means the church in corinthians will understand what is written in the letter, all the letters and acts show the apostles and followers perfecting and unifyinf the church. being a bible christian is fine but doesn't mean that you can interpret the bible correctly and understand it. that is why there are so many different denominations. jesus passed the keys to peter and promised that the holy spirit will guide and protect the church,the only church that this can relate to is the catholic church as history itself and the bible clearly shows.

2006-11-21 17:40:24 · answer #7 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 1 1

St. Paul was a bonafide bishop of the church, making him part of the official teaching office of the church ... the Magisterium.

He was doing the teaching here, as was St. John, St. James, St. Peter, and all the other apostles/bishops/bonafide members of the official Magisterium of the church.

They were all following Christs's command, just as his church still does today:

Mat 28:18 And Jesus coming, spoke to them, saying: All power is given to me in heaven and in earth.
Mat 28:19 Going therefore, teach ye all nations: baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Ghost.
Mat 28:20 Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you. And behold I am with you all days, even to the consummation of the world.

Jesus never said to use the bible to teach anyone. He merely told his apostles, the bishops, to go out and teach.

You are living proof that, left to their own devices, people often fail to understand the true meaning of scripture.

Shame!

2006-11-21 20:41:40 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

This is just a response to someone else -

if you're going to bash on Catholics, get your facts straight.

Gutenberg didn't have the first printing press in the 16th century. William Caxton printed the first pages in English in the 1400's, well before the Reformation took hold.

Also, the term "Middle Ages", "Dark Ages', etc, were terms coined by Italian humanists, who were still Catholic, only because they felt they were returning to the beliefs of Plato, Roman Empire, etc. They never intended it as a way to undermine the Middle Ages. In fact, universities as we know them were created during this time, and learning, spirituality and education were encouraged during this time as well. You have to understand this time as a time of beginning for the European society we know today. I can't stand ignorant Christians who think because they were taught to be Anti-Catholic that everything they read will support it. get your facts straight.

2006-11-21 18:03:50 · answer #9 · answered by Stephen H 1 · 2 1

no church is perfect
the catholics are no acception. the bible is literal and easily understood. when someone wants to change the bible in order to best serve thereselves they better not let anyone know what it really says. this doesnt mean however that catholics are not our brothers and sisters in Christ if they believe in Jesus.

2006-11-21 17:56:36 · answer #10 · answered by thespillgood 2 · 1 0

The bible does not support the notion of being indwelt by the Spirit as the sole criteria as being “the Church”, or the teaching authority of the Church. The Gospel message was handed down with the office of priest, bishop, and deacon for them to teach it, and NOWHERE in the Bible is each individual believer given the Gospel message to teach unless they have been ordained by a higher authority.

2 Timothy 3:14 But as for you, continue in what you have learned {TRADITION} and have firmly believed, knowing from whom you learned it (MAGISTERIUM} 15 and how from childhood you have been acquainted with the sacred writings {SCRIPTURE} which are able to instruct you for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, 17 that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work.

Note that Scripture is not the first thing on his list but the last. And he tells them that the Bible is "profitable" not sufficient to instruct us. It is only when we include Scripture with Tradition and Magisterium that we are "fully equipped."

I challenge House Speaker to prove the full doctrine of Scripture (ie., canon, inspiration, inerrancy, authority, etc.) independently of Tradition and the goons that compiled his Bible for him in 397 AD.

I abjure you, House Speaker in the name of Christ to produce a single biblical text that uses the words "the Bible alone" in reference to the rule of faith.

James 2:24 You see that a man is justified by works and not by faith alone.
No honest Protestant who believes in "faith alone" can uphold this verse.

Sadly, Protestants seem to think that because we do not hold to Sola Scriptura, Catholics do no settle doctrinal disputes from Scripture. This is the reason why psuedoscholars sometimes quote the Fathers out of context to allegedly "prove" that they supported SS. In fact, we are perfectly happy to use Scripture to establish doctrine and settle disputes. But once the doctrine is defined and the dispute settled, that process and its canonical documentation become part of Tradition. This is why some Protestants get confused and bandy about the false notion of "Sola Ecclesia."

We Catholics submit to Scripture as our PRIMARY source for doctrine (Prima Scriptura) but not as our only source. And we certainly do not submit to the man-made systems and merely human interpretations of every individual. St. Peter warned us about this in 1Pet 1:15ff.

The reason why House Speaker's "bible alone" theory fails miserably is that no document can establish its own authority. External authority must always establish it. Even the Protestants when they claim that the canon "just was" are basically arguing from TRADITION and thus violating their bible alone theory.

2006-11-21 17:53:27 · answer #11 · answered by Br. Dymphna S.F.O 4 · 2 1

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