women ? verses please .
2006-11-20 02:32:00 · 14 answers · asked by jsjmlj 5 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Neither the Torah nor the rabbinic tradition has much to say concerning lesbian relationships. It is the male's "spilling of seed" anywhere other than in the usual "place" that is seen as a sin.
The Torah seems to see homosexual relations in a cultic context rather than something more parallel to the interpersonal context of heterosexual relationships.
Later Jewish tradition, including the Biblical prophets, makes no reference to homosexuality regarding the sins of Sodom and Gemmorah; these are seen as cruelty and lack of hospitality to the "stranger" - xenophobia, as it were.
Reform Judaism, for the most part, seems to view the traditional prohibitions against homosexuality as mores from a bygone age, mores now replaced with clearer understandings of the reality of gender orientation as something which is beyond simple individual "preference." As a whole, the Reform Movement, both the "lay people" and the rabbis have come out very strongly in favor of civil rights for gays and lesbians.
2006-11-20 02:39:39 · answer #1 · answered by Sweetchild Danielle 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The Old Testament speaks of homosexuality as an abomination. What I'd rather see are verses in the New Testament ascribed to Jesus that say the same thing.
2006-11-20 02:35:36 · answer #2 · answered by E D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Gay and homosexual are synonyms. If you're referring to gay women, or lesbians, I really can't recall anything in the Bible that mentions that. Good question, though. Will have to look into it.
2006-11-20 02:36:37 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whenever Jesus spoke of fornication, he used the greek word "porneia", which includes homosexuality and a host of other improper sexual acts. In Matthew 15:19, he lumped fornication in with sins as serious as murder.
He did not hate homosexuals or other fornicators. We know this because there are many accounts of his acting with kindness toward sinners and helping them toward repentance. When the Apostle Paul began his ministry and helped first century Christians form their congregations, he maintained the standard that Jesus set for Christian disciples and so should true Christians today.
2006-11-20 02:50:17 · answer #4 · answered by krobin 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
homosexuals in general it what the Bible is referring to.. And also God does not mean to go out here and kill anyone... The Bible also says to follow the laws of the land, and the laws of society confirm that No we cant kill anyone just because we think they are gay... Use your head God blesses us with common sense also..
2006-11-20 02:44:53 · answer #5 · answered by Ash 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Gay is a terminology used to make people think that homosexuals are happy. How could anyone be happy going against God? The word is not in the Bible because the word didn't exist the way it is used now.
2006-11-20 02:35:59 · answer #6 · answered by Fish <>< 7 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Generally, the terms "men, man, brothers (in Christ)" in the Bible will refer to both men and women. In this particular case I think you're referring to (Romans 1:26-28 see below), the term "men" does really refer to the male sex. However, in the same passage, if you'll look in the whole context, women are mentioned as well.
English Standard Version
26For this reason God gave them up to dishonorable passions. For their women exchanged natural relations for those that are contrary to nature; 27and the men likewise gave up natural relations with women and were consumed with passion for one another, men committing shameless acts with men and receiving in themselves the due penalty for their error.
28And since they did not see fit to acknowledge God, God gave them up to a debased mind to do what ought not to be done.
2006-11-20 02:37:09 · answer #7 · answered by lmsleigh1 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
"gay" is a modern word that means homosexual. It refers to both men and women.
2006-11-20 02:38:02 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
human beings have tried to apply those verses to tutor that the love between Jonathan and David replaced into sexual for a lengthy, lengthy time period. They were incorrect then and also you're incorrect now. The bible replaced into no longer written in English, it replaced into no longer written presently. The words used interior the unique ought to have conveyed the actual which technique of the be conscious love in those verses. regrettably, in English, we've purely the single be conscious to describe any type of love yet different languages have diverse words, lots of them, to reveal love for God, mom and father, brothers, associates and so on. it ought to were easily understood, on the time, basically what Jonathan and David meant to one yet another and that courting ought to were a similar then as 2 magnificent associates presently. a real pal in whom you should confide something, one for whom you should also be prepared to die.. So, get a grip on your self. you've not chanced on something that nobody else had stated, you've basically made a similar mistake that tens of millions of others made in attempting to tutor something that's no longer there to tutor.
2016-10-16 09:47:41 · answer #9 · answered by ? 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How about Romans 1:
24 Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25 They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen.
26 Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27 In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
2006-11-20 02:35:04 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 1⤋