Does this mean the man is disqualified if he has been divorced and remarried? Or is it because of the polygamy that was acceptable to people back then? Can you give me some evidence either way? Thank you SO much!!!
2006-11-20 01:11:55 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
In 1st. Timothy 3:1-13 Is an example & there is other verses I can use, A minister or a deacon has to be the Husband of One Living wife, Not divorce & remarried, Because the Ministry is to type out Jesus Christ & Christ only has ONE BRIDE. If a man has a living wife & are remarried, he can not qualify for the ministry, But if a man is divorce & not remarried, then he can be in the ministry, also none of this will disqualify any man from not being saved & in the Bride, only for the ministry, Now if a man has a wife that is deceased, then he is free to marry again only in the Lord, & still be a minister
2006-11-20 01:22:01 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
As it is interpreted today, this means a married man who has never been divorced. Among conservative denominations, divorced men are not allowed to hold positions as pastors or presbytery. In the times when this was written, divorce was not looked upon with favor, which is why Jesus issued the commandment concerning divorce and adultery that he did. Polygamy had disappeared from the Jewish church, and was only practiced among the pagans. Polygamy has never been approved in the Christian church.
2006-11-20 09:17:36 · answer #2 · answered by Preacher 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A person who holds a position of authority in the Christian congregation can only have one wife at any one time. Having been divorced and remarried does not necessarily disqualify a man from holding a position in the congregation. At the outset of the Christian era, polygamy was no longer allowed among servants of God.
2006-11-20 09:16:05 · answer #3 · answered by LineDancer 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, this is quite clearly an issue of polygamy. If it meant a man was disqualified to ever have married a second time, that would be rather unfair to the widower who married again after his first wife's death.
Some texts to consider:
Exodus 21:10 "If he take him another wife; her food, her raiment, and her duty of marriage, shall he not diminish."
Leviticus 18:18 "Neither shalt thou take a wife to her sister, to vex her to uncover her nakedness, beside the other in her life time."
Deuteronomy 21:15-16 "If a man have two wives, one beloved, and another hated, and they have born him children, both the beloved and the hated; and if the firstborn son be hers that was hated: Then it shall be, when he maketh his sons to inherit that which he hath, that he may not make the son of the beloved firstborn before the son of the hated, which is indeed the firstborn."
Each of these texts gives rules of marriage which allow for multiple wives. There were certain kinds of relationships that were never acceptable. Incest, for example. Two sisters at the same time could not be married to one man. But God, through the prophet Nathan, told David that He had given him his wives. So polygamy was permitted, but it was never recommended in the Bible. To the contrary, the Bible plainly paints the picture of disharmony in the home which results from this practice. Samuel's parents, for example.
2006-11-20 09:44:58 · answer #4 · answered by AsiaWired 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I have never reseached this, but I believe it is said in two ways. Not sure if you know in that in the bible God gives rules on divorcement. I believe if the man went against what God says on that then he cannot qualify for pastor or a decon. Now if the man was divorced before he ever got saved then God has forgiven hin of all his sins. So then he does qualify. And as you have said you cannot be married to more than one wife as well. Also wanted to make it known that this scripture you are talking about is talking about a man not a woman.
2006-11-20 09:19:34 · answer #5 · answered by iwant_u2_wantme2000 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In the historical context it is clearly a question of polygamy. Converts were not obliged to do away with their extra wives - that would have been cruel to the women, but in order to set the standard, polygamous men were not allowed to be deacons or elders.
On the other hand the question of divorce could come under "irreprochable". In other words, if the circumstances of the divorce are clearly reproachable to him (excuse the grammar), or if in the culture, there could be a lot of finger pointing which would hinder his ministry, that should affect the choice.
2006-11-20 09:17:37 · answer #6 · answered by Mr Ed 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's a polygamy issue, though some churches say the pastor must have been married only one time except for in the case of adultery.
2006-11-20 12:16:58 · answer #7 · answered by bigvol662004 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Life was hard in the DAY! Like always, men died in wars, and women
outnumbered men. So men had more than one wife to make children to help
protect the clan.
As civilzation grew, cities developed, the need for many wives was not
as necessary.
Sex is not just a physical act. It is spiritual too! And there are real bonds
created between humans through realtionships and sex. They call it
karma. God is trying to help us cut down on these karma
things by asking us to stay with one partner. Which also helps us to
mature and grow on the spiritual level.
OKAY?
2006-11-20 09:19:47 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe it means one wife at the time. The Old Testament required priests to be married only once, and not to a divorced woman. It was allowed for them to marry a widowed priests wife. I don't have the scriptures here, but can look them up if you like.
2006-11-20 09:16:44 · answer #9 · answered by RB 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mav would think both polygamy and divorce would come into play here.
2006-11-20 09:17:51 · answer #10 · answered by Mav here! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋