men on base pither throws to batter ,batter hits linedrive that hits pither on the foot and then hits the baserunner .somebody help settle this once and for all
2006-11-19 17:49:11 · 10 answers · asked by eddie r 2 in Sports ➔ Baseball
If it hits the pither on the foot it is like hitting no one since there is no pither on the team BUT if it hits the pitcher on the foot the following rule from mlb rule book applies. Key is if there is stilll a possible play by another infielder (in the umpire's judgement)
If a fair ball goes through, or by, an infielder, and touches a runner immediately back of him, or touches the runner after having been deflected by a fielder, the umpire shall not declare the runner out for being touched by a batted ball. In making such decision the umpire must be convinced that the ball passed through, or by, the fielder, and that no other infielder had the chance to make a play on the ball.
Hope this helps
2006-11-20 00:18:37 · answer #1 · answered by jcbag 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
If the ball hits a defensive player before hitting the base runner, the ball is fair and the play is good. The runner is only out when hit by a batted ball before the ball strikes a defensive player, a base, or the pitching rubber.
2006-11-19 21:24:24 · answer #2 · answered by jpbofohio 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
First, the pitch ought to be observed as a ball or strike. 2nd, if the pitch isn't the 0.33 strike for the 0.33 out, the run scores and all different runners develop one base from the bases occupied on the time of the pitch. comments: The catcher is by no skill authorized to the touch the pitch earlier it crosses the plate. Doing so is interference. And while a runner is stealing living house, that's a shrink back besides. in case you don't be attentive to the guidelines, do not difficulty answering those questions.
2016-10-22 09:53:58 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Unless the runner intentionally allowed himself to be hit with the ball, the ball remains live and play continues.
Ricky Lee: The ball in the play was deflected by the pitcher.
2006-11-20 05:49:18 · answer #4 · answered by Ryan R 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The ball is alive and in play. The runner would be out ONLY if he intentionally interfered with the DEFLECTED batted ball as described.
2014-12-15 08:05:05 · answer #5 · answered by Don 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Hey Ryan you got that one wrong. He doesn't have to intentionaly try to be hit by the ball,if the ball hits him before passing a fielder hes out,intentional or not
2006-11-20 09:51:36 · answer #6 · answered by Ricky Lee 6 · 0⤊ 2⤋
if the ball is touched by a defensive player first and the runner trys to avoid contact or does not make an attempt to make contact with the ball he is NOT out
2006-11-19 18:15:09 · answer #7 · answered by Hoss 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋
the runners not out unless the defensive players gets the ball and tags him out and boy oh boy i wouldn't want to be that pitcher that's for sure
2006-11-20 04:52:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
the ball is in play.
If the runner is hit by the ball in play, he is out.
2006-11-19 17:51:59 · answer #9 · answered by Joey Joe, yo 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
not on a deflected ball........
2006-11-19 18:19:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋