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Is the Dark Ages a time period in the Middle Ages or is it just another name for Middle Ages?

2006-11-19 11:37:23 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Social Science Other - Social Science

8 answers

The term Dark age was originally used by the Italian scholar Petarch (sp) who lived in the 14th century.It was used to describe the period between the fall of the western Roman empire to the Renaissance period(loosly starting about 1100)
His view were there were three ages .1st was the classical period in which he meant the time both of Greek and Roman culture and knowledge followed by the dark age (hence the middle age) where there was little culture or science and finally the Renaissance .Although I do not speak Latin I do speak French and based on my knowledge of French I think probably means rebirth.
He meant the term in a derogatory way

Later Historians and Scholars used the term to refer to the fact that there was little recorded history of that period so little was known of that time..But as time and science have moved on we know far more about the peoples of that time now.
It is really only used by movie makers now when making films that blur myth and fact of the time because it has a better ring to it than middle age .

P.S When I say the Renaissance period started around 1100 I am refering to when Petrach considered the period to begin.It is considered by historians today to have began in the late 13th Century ,But Petarch is hardly going to say he is living a cuturally backward period .

2006-11-19 12:16:55 · answer #1 · answered by Haydn 4 · 0 0

The Dark Ages are seperate from the Middle Ages. The Dark Ages refer to the time immediately postceding the collapse of the Roman Empire in 479 AD and last a few hundred years until some sense of general order was established. I don't know of any official date for the end of the Dark Ages, but I'd place it at about the middle of the 11th century when the Normans conquered England and the Vikings lost their grip of northern Europe. The Middle Ages last until the Rennaisance in the late 15th/early 16th century.

I feel 600 AD is too early to consider the end of the Dark Ages, and 1300/1350 is certaintly too early for the start of the Rennaisance.

2006-11-19 19:56:33 · answer #2 · answered by blakenyp 5 · 0 0

In historiography, the term Dark Ages or Dark Age most commonly refers to the European Early Middle Ages, the period encompassing (roughly) 476 to 1000.

The term referred to the lack of very many written records so the whole period is "dark" to us now because we have so little written history. Critics also said there were few real advances in society then.

2006-11-19 19:40:13 · answer #3 · answered by braennvin2 5 · 1 0

No, the Dark Ages are generally referred to as anything before 600 A.D. The middle Ages are from 600 to around 1300/1350 A.D. Then comes the Renaissance....etc.

2006-11-19 19:45:29 · answer #4 · answered by cyanne2ak 7 · 0 0

It's the name of the same time period. During this time, there wasn't very much development in society. It was actually called the Dark Ages by people during the Renaissance.

2006-11-19 20:24:43 · answer #5 · answered by green_kiwi18 2 · 0 0

Yes, It is the same name for the middle ages because the middle ages were very hard

2006-11-19 19:39:42 · answer #6 · answered by Dimitriy G 2 · 0 0

it is the same - but the dark age refer to the first period of the middle ages (476-1000)

2006-11-19 19:44:29 · answer #7 · answered by eli a 3 · 0 0

I have heard that the term "Dark Ages" is no longer in fashion, as it's misleading. I believe it's called the "High Middle Age" now.

2006-11-19 20:53:27 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

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